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Tuesday, January 3, 2017

Computer Science Paper 3 NET Exam question paper June 2016

Paper-III   J-87-16

COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
PAPER – III 
1. A ripple counter is a (n) :
 (1) Synchronous Counter (2) Asynchronous counter
 (3) Parallel counter (4) None of the above  

2. 8085 microprocessor has ____ bit ALU.
 (1) 32 (2) 16
 (3) 8 (4) 4 

3. The register that stores the bits required to mask the interrupts is ______.
 (1) Status register (2) Interrupt service register 
 (3) Interrupt mask register (4) Interrupt request register  

4. Which of the following in 8085 microprocessor performs 
 HL = HL + HL ?
 (1) DAD D (2) DAD H
 (3) DAD B (4) DAD SP 

5. In ______ addressing mode, the operands are stored in the memory. The address of the corresponding memory location is given in a register which is specified in the instruction.
 (1) Register direct (2) Register indirect
 (3) Base indexed (4) Displacement 

6. The output of the following combinational circuit  
 is :
 (1) X . Y (2) X + Y
 (3) X ⊕ Y (4) X ⊕ Y  

7. Which of the following statements is/are True regarding some advantages that an object-
oriented DBMS (OODBMS) offers over a relational database ?
 I. An OODBMS avoids the “impedance mismatch” problem. 
 II. An OODBMS avoids the “phantom” problem.
 III. An OODBMS provides higher performance concurrency control than most
relational databases. 
 IV. An OODBMS provides faster access to individual data objects once they have been
read from disk.
 (1) II and III only (2) I and IV only
 (3) I, II, and III only (4) I, III and IV only 

8. The Global conceptual Schema in a distributed database contains information about global
relations. The condition that all the data of the global relation must be mapped into the
fragments, that is, it must not happen that a data item which belongs to a global relation
does not belong to any fragment, is called :
 (1) Disjointness condition  
 (2) Completeness condition 
 (3) Reconstruction condition  
 (4) Aggregation condition 

9. Suppose database table T1(P, R) currently has tuples {(10, 5), (15, 8), (25, 6)} and table T2 (A, C) currently has {(10, 6), (25, 3), (10, 5)}. Consider the following three relational algebra queries RA1, RA2 and RA3 :
 RA1 : T1  T1.P = T2.A T2 where   is natural join symbol
 RA2 : T1    T1.P = T2.A T2 where     is left outer join symbol
 RA3 : T1  T1.P = T2.A and T1.R = T2.C T2 
 The number of tuples in the resulting table of RA1, RA2 and RA3 are given by :
 (1) 2, 4, 2 respectively (2) 2, 3, 2 respectively
 (3) 3, 3, 1 respectively (4) 3, 4, 1 respectively  

10. Consider the table R with attributes A, B and C. The functional dependencies that hold on R are : A → B, C → AB. Which of the following statements is/are True ?
 I. The decomposition of R into R1(C, A) and R2(A, B) is lossless.
 II. The decomposition of R into R1(A, B) and R2(B, C) is lossy.
 (1) Only I (2) Only II
 (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II 

11. Consider the following ORACLE relations :
 One (x, y) = {<2, 5>, <1, 6>, <1, 6>, <1, 6>, <4, 8>, <4, 8>}
 Two (x, y) = {<2, 55>, <1, 1>, <4, 4>, <1, 6>, <4, 8>, <4, 8>, <9, 9>, <1, 6>}
 Consider the following two SQL queries SQ1 and SQ2 :
 SQ1 :  SELECT * FROM One)
          EXCEPT
  (SELECT * FROM Two);
 SQ2 :  SELECT * FROM One)
        EXCEPT ALL
  (SELECT * FROM Two);
 For each of the SQL queries, what is the cardinality (number of rows) of the result obtained when applied to the instances above ?
 (1) 2 and 1 respectively (2) 1 and 2 respectively
 (3) 2 and 2 respectively (4) 1 and 1 respectively

12. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched in the context of database  design ?
List – I (Database term) List – II (Definition)
I. Specialization     A. Result of taking the union of two or more disjoint (lower-level) entity sets to produce a higher-level entity set.
II. Generalization     B. Express the number of entities to which another entity can be associated via a relationship set.
III. Aggregation     C. Result of taking a subset of a higher-level entity set to form a lower-level entity set.
IV. Mapping cardinalitiesD. An abstraction in which relationship sets (along with their associated entity sets) are treated as higher-level entity sets, and can participate in relationships. 
Codes :
  I II III IV
 (1) D A B C
 (2) D C B A
 (3) C D A B
 (4) C A D B 

13. Consider a raster grid having XY-axes in positive X-direction and positive upward
Y-direction with Xmax = 10, Xmin = –5, Ymax = 11, and Ymin = 6. What is the address of memory pixel with location (5, 4) in raster grid assuming base address 1 (one) ?
 (1) 150 (2) 151
 (3) 160 (4) 161 

14. Consider a N-bit plane frame buffer with W-bit wide lookup table with W > N. How many intensity levels are available at a time ?
 (1) 2N (2) 2W
 (3) 2N+W (4) 2N–1 

15. Consider the Breshenham’s line generation algorithm for a line with gradient greater than one, current point (xi, yi) and decision parameter, di. The next point to be plotted          (xi+1, yi+1) and updated decision parameter, di+1, for di < 0 are given as _______.
 (1) xi+1 = xi+1
  yi+1 = yi 
  di+1 = di + 2 dy 
 (2) xi+1 = xi 
  yi+1 = yi + 1
  di+1 = di + 2 dx
 (3) xi+1 = xi 
  yi+1 = yi + 1
  di+1 = di + 2 (dx – dy)
 (4) xi+1 = xi + 1
  yi+1 = yi + 1
  di+1 = di + 2 (dy – dx) 

16. A point P(2, 5) is rotated about a pivot point (1, 2) by 60°. What is the new transformed point P' ?
 (1) (1, 4) (2) (–1, 4)
 (3) (1, – 4) (4) (– 4, 1) 

17. In perspective projection (from 3D to 2D), objects behind the centre of projection are projected upside down and backward onto the view-plane. This is known as _____.
 (1) Topological distortion  
 (2) Vanishing point 
 (3) View confusion  
 (4) Perspective foreshortening  

18. The Liang-Barsky line clipping algorithm uses the parametric equation of a line from            (x1, y1) to (x2, y2) along with its infinite extension which is given as :  x = x1 + ∆x.u  y = y1 + ∆y.u  Where ∆x = x2 – x1, ∆y = y2 – y1, and u is the parameter with 0 <  u < 1. A line AB with end points A(–1, 7) and B(11, 1) is to be clipped against a rectangular window with              xmin = 1, xmax = 9, ymin = 2, and ymax = 8. The lower and upper bound values of the parameter u for the clipped line using Liang-Barsky algorithm is given as :
 (1) (0, 2 3 ) (2)   
  1 6 , 5 6
 
 (3) (0, 1 3 ) (4) (0, 1) 

19. Match the following with reference to Functional programming history :
a. Lambda calculus i. Church, 1932
b. Lambda calculus as programming language 
ii. Wordsworth, 1970
c. Lazy evaluation iii. Haskel, 1990
d. Type classes iv. Mecarthy, 1960 
Codes :
  a b c d
 (1) iv i iii ii
 (2) i iv ii iii
 (3) iii ii iv i
 (4) ii i iv iii 

20. Aliasing in the context of programming languages refers to :
 (1) Multiple variables having the same location 
 (2) Multiple variables having the same identifier 
 (3) Multiple variables having the same value 
 (4) Multiple use of same variable 

21. Assume that the program ‘P’ is implementing parameter passing with ‘call by reference’. What will be printed by following print statements in P ?  Program P( )  {   x = 10;   y = 3;   funb (y, x, x)   print x;   print y;  }   funb (x, y, z)   {      y = y + 4;      z = x + y + z;   }  (1) 10, 7 (2) 31, 3  (3) 10, 3 (4) 31, 7 
22. The regular grammar for the language L = {anbm | n + m is even} is given by   (1) S → S1 | S2   S1 → a S1 | A1   A1 → b A1 | λ   S2 → aaS2 | A2   A2 → b A2 | λ  (2) S → S1 | S2   S1 → a S1 | a A1   S2 → aa S2 | A2   A1 → bA1 | λ   A2 → bA2 | λ  (3) S → S1 | S2   S1 → aaa S1 | aA1   S2 → aaS2 | A2   A1 → bA1 | λ   A2 → bA2 | λ  (4) S → S1 | S2   S1 → aa S1 | A1   S2 → aaS2 | aA2   A1 → bbA1 | λ   A2 → bbA2 | b

23. Let Σ = {a, b} and language L = {aa, bb}. Then, the complement of L is 
 (1) {λ, a, b, ab, ba} ∪ {w∈{a, b}* | |w| > 3}
 (2) {a, b, ab, ba} ∪ {w∈{a, b}* | |w| > 3}
 (3) {w  ∈ { a, b}* | |w| > 3} ∪ {a, b, ab, ba}
 (4) {λ, a, b, ab, ba} ∪ {w ∈ {a, b}* | |w| > 3} 

24. Consider the following identities for regular expressions : 
 (a) (r + s)* = (s + r)*
 (b) (r*)* = r*
 (c) (r* s*)* = (r + s)*
 Which of the above identities are true ?
 (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
 (3) (c) and (a) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) 

25. Suppose transmission rate of a channel is 32 kbps. If there are ‘8’ routes from source to destination and each packet p contains 8000 bits. Total end to end delay in sending packet P is _____.
 (1) 2 sec (2) 3 sec
 (3) 4 sec (4) 1 sec 

26. Consider the following statements :
 A. High speed Ethernet works on optic fiber.
 B. A point to point protocol over Ethernet is a network protocol for encapsulating PPP frames inside Ethernet frames.
 C. High speed Ethernet does not work on optic fiber.
 D. A point to point protocol over Ethernet is a network protocol for encapsulating Ethernet frames inside PPP frames.
 Which of the following is correct ?
 (1) A and B are true; C and D are false.
 (2) A and B are false; C and D are true.
 (3) A, B, C and D are true.
 (4) A, B, C and D are false.

27. In CRC checksum method, assume that given frame for transmission is 1101011011 and the generator polynomial is G(x) = x4 + x + 1. 
 After implementing CRC encoder, the encoded word sent from sender side is _____.
 (1) 11010110111110 
 (2) 11101101011011
 (3) 110101111100111 
 (4) 110101111001111 

28. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200 bits frames using a shared channel with 200 kbps bandwidth. If the system (all stations put together) produces 1000 frames per second, then the throughput of the system is _______.
 (1) 0.268 (2) 0.468
 (3) 0.368 (4) 0.568 

29. An analog signal has a bit rate of 8000 bps and a baud rate of 1000. 
 Then analog signal has _____ signal elements and carry _____ data elements in each signal.
 (1) 256, 8 bits 
 (2) 128, 4 bits
 (3) 256, 4 bits 
 (4) 128, 8 bits 

30. The plain text message BAHI encrypted with RSA algorithm using e = 3, d = 7 and n = 33 and the characters of the message are encoded using the values 00 to 25 for letters A to Z. Suppose character by character encryption was implemented. Then, the Cipher Text message is _____.
 (1) ABHI 
 (2) HAQC
 (3) IHBA 
 (4) BHQC

31. Consider the problem of a chain <A1, A2, A3, A4> of four matrices. Suppose that the dimensions of the matrices A1, A2, A3 and A4 are 30 × 35, 35 × 15, 15 × 5 and 5 × 10 respectively. The minimum number of scalar multiplications needed to compute the product A1A2A3A4 is ____.
 (1) 14875 (2) 21000
 (3) 9375 (4) 11875 

32. Consider a hash table of size m = 10000, and the hash function h(K) = floor                
(m(KA mod 1)) for A = ( 5 – 1)/2. The key 123456 is mapped to location ______.
 (1) 46 (2) 41
 (3) 43 (4) 48 

33. Consider a weighted complete graph G on the vertex set {ν1, ν2, …. νn} such that the weight of the edge (νi, νj) is 4 | i – j|. The weight of minimum cost spanning tree of G is :
 (1) 4n2 (2) n
 (3) 4n – 4  (4) 2n – 2  

34. A priority queue is implemented as a max-heap. Initially, it has five elements. The level- order traversal of the heap is as follows :
 20, 18, 15, 13, 12
 Two new elements ‘10’ and ‘17’ are inserted in the heap in that order. The level-order traversal of the heap after the insertion of the element is :
 (1) 20, 18, 17, 15, 13, 12, 10 
 (2) 20, 18, 17, 12, 13, 10, 15
 (3) 20, 18, 17, 10, 12, 13, 15 
 (4) 20, 18, 17, 13, 12, 10, 15 

35. If there are n integers to sort, each integer has d digits, and each digit is in the set                {1, 2, …, k}, radix sort can sort the numbers in :
 (1) O (k (n + d)) (2) O (d (n + k))
 (3) O ((n + k) l g d) (4) O ((n + d) l g k) 

36. Match the following :
a. Prim’s algorithm i. O(V2E)
b. Bellman-Ford algorithm  ii. O(VE lgV)
c. Floyd-Warshall algorithm  iii. O(E lgV)
d. Johnson’s algorithm iv. O(V3)
 Where V is the set of nodes and E is the set of edges in the graph. 
Codes :
  a b c d
 (1) i iii iv ii
 (2) i iii ii iv
 (3) iii i iv ii
 (4) iii i ii iv 

37. Constructors have _____ return type.
 (1) void (2) char
 (3) int (4) no 

38. Method over-riding can be prevented by using final as a modifier at ______.
 (1) the start of the class.
 (2) the start of method declaration.
 (3) the start of derived class.
 (4) the start of the method declaration in the derived class. 

39. Which of the following is a correct statement ?
 (1) Composition is a strong type of association between two classes with full ownership.
 (2) Composition is a strong type of association between two classes with partial ownership. 
 (3) Composition is a weak type of association between two classes with partial ownership.
 (4) Composition is a weak type of association between two classes with strong ownership. 

40. Which of the following is not a correct statement ?
 (1) Every class containing abstract method must be declared abstract.
 (2) Abstract class can directly be initiated with ‘new’ operator.
 (3) Abstract class can be initiated.
 (4) Abstract class does not contain any definition of implementation.  

41. Which of the following tag in HTML is used to surround information, such as signature of the person who created the page ?
 (1) <body> </body> (2) <address> </address>
 (3) <strong> </strong> (4) <em> </em> 

42. Java uses threads to enable the entire environment to be ______.
 (1) Symmetric (2) Asymmetric
 (3) Synchronous (4) Asynchronous  

43. An Operating System (OS) crashes on the average once in 30 days, that is, the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) = 30 days. When this happens, it takes 10 minutes to recover the OS, that is, the Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 10 minutes. The availability of the OS with these reliability figures is approximately :
 (1) 96.97% (2) 97.97%
 (3) 99.009% (4) 99.97%

44. Match each software lifecycle model in List – I to its description in List – II :
 List – I              List – II
I. Code-and-Fix         a. Assess risks at each step; do most critical action first.
II. Evolutionary prototyping      b. Build an initial small requirement specifications, code it, then “evolve” the specifications and code as needed.
III. Spiral             c. Build initial requirement specification for several releases, then design-and-code in sequence
IV. Staged Delivery         d. Standard phases (requirements, design, code, test) in order
V. Waterfall         e. Write some code, debug it, repeat                        (i.e. ad-hoc) 
Codes :
  I II III IV V
 (1) e b a c d
 (2) e c a b d
 (3) d a b c e
 (4) c e a b d 

45. Match each software term in List – I to its description in List – II :
 List – I  List – II
I. Wizards a. Forms that provide structure for a document
II. Templates b. A series of commands grouped into a single command
III. Macro c. A single program that incorporates most commonly used tools
IV. Integrated Software d. Step-by-step guides in application software 
V. Software Suite e. Bundled group of software programs  
Codes :
  I II III IV V
 (1) d a b c e
 (2) b a d c e
 (3) d e b a c
 (4) e c b a d

46. The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software Engineering is 
 (1) ISO 9000 : 2004 (2) ISO 9001 : 2000
 (3) ISO 9002 : 2001 (4) ISO 9003 : 2004 

47. Which of the following are external qualities of a software product ?
 (1) Maintainability, reusability, portability, efficiency, correctness.
 (2) Correctness, reliability, robustness, efficiency, usability.
 (3) Portability, interoperability, maintainability, reusability.
 (4) Robustness, efficiency, reliability, maintainability, reusability. 

48. Which of the following is/are CORRECT statement(s) about version and release ?
 I. A version is an instance of a system, which is functionally identical but non- functionally distinct from other instances of a system.
 II. A version is an instance of a system, which is functionally distinct in some way from other system instances.
 III. A release is an instance of a system, which is distributed to users outside of the development team.
 IV. A release is an instance of a system, which is functionally identical but non- functionally distinct from other instances of a system. 
 (1) I and III (2) II and IV
 (3) I and IV (4) II and III 

49. The Unix Operating System Kernel maintains two key data structures related to processes, the process table and the user structure. Now, consider the following two statements :
 I. The process table is resident all the time and contain information needed for all processes, even those that are not currently in memory.
 II. The user structure is swapped or paged out when its associated process is not in memory, in order not to waste memory on information that is not needed.
 Which of the following options is correct with reference to above statements ?
 (1) Only (I) is correct. (2) Only (II) is correct.
 (3) Both (I) and (II) are correct. (4) Both (I) and (II) are wrong. 

50. Consider a system which have ‘n’ number of processes and ‘m’ number of resource types.
The time complexity of the safety algorithm, which checks whether a system is in safe
state or not, is of the order of :
 (1) O(mn) (2) O(m2n2)
 (3) O(m2n) (4) O(mn2) 

51. An operating system supports a paged virtual memory, using a central processor with a
cycle time of one microsecond. It costs an additional one microsecond to access a page
other than the current one. Pages have 1000 words, and the paging device is a drum that
rotates at 3000 revolutions per minute and transfers one million words per second.
Further, one percent of all instructions executed accessed a page other than the current
page. The instruction that accessed another page, 80% accessed a page already in memory
and when a new page was required, the replaced page was modified 50% of the time.
What is the effective access time on this system, assuming that the system is running only
one process and the processor is idle during drum transfers ?
 (1) 30 microseconds  
 (2) 34 microseconds 
 (3) 60 microseconds  
 (4) 68 microseconds  

52. Consider the following page reference string :
 1, 2, 3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6, 2, 1, 2, 3, 7, 6, 3, 2, 1, 2, 3, 6
 Which of the following options, gives the correct number of page faults related to LRU,
FIFO, and optimal page replacement algorithms respectively, assuming 05 page frames
and all frames are initially empty ?
 (1) 10, 14, 8 (2) 8, 10, 7
 (3) 7, 10, 8 (4) 7, 10, 7 

53. Consider a file currently consisting of 50 blocks. Assume that the file control block and the index block is already in memory. If a block is added at the end (and the block information to be added is stored in memory), then how many disk I/O operations are required for indexed (single-level) allocation strategy ?
 (1) 1 (2) 101
 (3) 27 (4) 0 

54. An experimental file server is up 75% of the time and down for 25% of the time due to bugs. How many times does this file server have to be replicated to give an availability of at least 99% ?
 (1) 2 (2) 4
 (3) 8 (4) 16 

55. Given the following two languages :  L1 = {uwwRν | u, v, w ∈ {a, b}+}  L2 = {uwwRν | u, ν, w ∈ {a, b}+, |u| > |ν|}
 Which of the following is correct ?   (1) L1 is regular language and L2 is not regular language.  (2) L1 is not regular language and L2 is regular language.  (3) Both L1 and L2 are regular languages.  (4) Both L1 and L2 are not regular languages.  

56. Given a Turing Machine   M = ({q0, q1}, {0, 1}, {0, 1, B}, δ, B, {q1})
 Where δ is a transition function defined as  δ(q0, 0) = (q0, 0, R)
 δ(q0, B) = (q1, B, R)
 The language L(M) accepted by Turing machine is given as :
 (1) 0* 1* (2) 00*
 (3) 10* (4) 1*0*

57. Let G = (V, T, S, P) be a context-free grammar such that every one of its productions is of the form A → ν, with |ν| = k > 1. The derivation tree for any string W ∈ L (G) has a height such that 
 (1) h < (|W| – 1) k – 1 
(2) logk |W| < h
 (3) logk|W| < h < (|W| – 1) k – 1 
(4) logk|W| < h < (|W| – 1) k – 1  

58. Which of the following is not used in standard JPEG image compression ?
 (1) Huffman coding (2) Runlength encoding
 (3) Zig-zag scan (4) K-L Transform  

59. Which of the following is a source coding technique ?
 (1) Huffman coding (2) Arithmetic coding 
 (3) Run-length coding  (4) DPCM 

60. If the histogram of an image is clustered towards origin on X-axis of a histogram plot then it indicates that the image is ______.
 (1) Dark (2) Good contrast
 (3) Bright (4) Very low contrast  

61. Consider the following linear programming problem :
 Max. z = 0.50 x2 – 0.10x1
 Subject to the constraints
  2x1 + 5x2 < 80
  x1 + x2 < 20
 and x1, x2 > 0
 The total maximum profit (z) for the above problem is :
 (1) 6 (2) 8
 (3) 10 (4) 12

62. Consider the following statements :
 (a) If primal (dual) problem has a finite optimal solution, then its dual (primal) problem has a finite optimal solution.
 (b) If primal (dual) problem has an unbounded optimum solution, then its dual (primal) has no feasible solution at all.
 (c) Both primal and dual problems may be infeasible.
 Which of the following is correct ?
 (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
 (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) 

63. Consider the following statements :
 (a) Assignment problem can be used to minimize the cost.
 (b) Assignment problem is a special case of transportation problem.
 (c) Assignment problem requires that only one activity be assigned to each resource.
 Which of the following options is correct ?
 (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
 (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) 

64. What are the following sequence of steps taken in designing a fuzzy logic machine ?
 (1) Fuzzification → Rule evaluation → Defuzzification 
 (2) Fuzzification → Defuzzification → Rule evaluation 
 (3) Rule evaluation → Fuzzification → Defuzzification
 (4) Rule evaluation → Defuzzification → Fuzzification 

65. Which of the following 2 input Boolean logic functions is linearly inseparable ?
 (a) AND (b) OR
 (c) NOR (d) XOR
 (e) NOT XOR
 (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
 (3) (c), (d) and (e) (4) (d) and (e)

66. Let R and S be two fuzzy relations defined as                   y1       y2
  R =
x 1
x 2
  
  0.7 0.5 0.8 0.4  
                                 z1       z2       z3
 and S = y1 y2
  
  0.9 0.6 0.2 0.1 0.7 0.5 
 Then, the resulting relation, T, which relates elements of universe of X to elements of
universe of Z using max-product composition is given by
                                 z1            z2         z3
 (1) T  =
x 1
x 2
  
  0.68 0.89 0.39 0.76 0.72 0.32
 
  
                                 z1            z2         z3
 (2) T  =
x 1
x 2
  
  0.68 0.89 0.39 0.72 0.76 0.32
  
                                 z1            z2         z3
 (3) T  =
x 1
x 2
  
  0.63 0.42 0.25 0.72 0.48 0.20
  
                                 z1            z2         z3
 (4) T  =
x 1
x 2
  
  0.05 0.35 0.14 0.04 0.28 0.16
  
67. Consider the following operations to be performed in Unix :
 “The pipe sorts all files in the current directory modified in the month of “June” by order
of size and prints them to the terminal screen. The sort option skips ten fields then sorts
the lines in numeric order.”
 Which of the following Unix command will perform above set of operations ?
 (1) ls – l | grep “June” | sort + 10n
 (2) ls – l | grep “June” | sort + 10r
 (3) ls – l | grep – v “June” | sort + 10n
 (4) ls – l | grep – n “June” | sort + 10x 

68. Which of the following statements is incorrect for a Windows Multiple Document
Interface (MDI) ?
 (1) Each document in an MDI application is displayed in a separate child window
within the client area of the application’s main window.
 (2) An MDI application has three kinds of windows namely a frame window, an MDI
client window and number of child windows.
 (3) An MDI application can support more than one kind of document.
 (4) An MDI application displays output in the client area of the frame window. 

69. Which of the following statement(s) is/are True regarding ‘nice’ command of UNIX ?
 I. It is used to set or change the priority of a process.
 II. A process’s nice value can be set at the time of creation.
 III. ‘nice’ takes a command line as an argument.
 (1) I, II only (2) II, III only
 (3) I, II, III (4) I, III only 

70. Let ν(x) mean x is a vegetarian, m(y) for y is meat, and e(x, y) for x eats y. Based on these, consider the following sentences :
 I. ∀x ν(x ) ⇔ (∀y e(x, y) ⇒ ¬m(y))  II. ∀x ν(x ) ⇔ (¬(∃y m(y) ∧e(x, y)))  III. ∀x (∃y m(y) ∧e(x, y)) ⇔ ¬ν(x)  One can determine that   (1) Only I and II are equivalent sentences   (2) Only II and III are equivalent sentences.  (3) Only I and III are equivalent sentence .  (4) I, II, and III are equivalent sentences. 

71. Match each Artificial Intelligence term in List-I that best describes a given situation in List – II :  List – I  List – II I. Semantic Network a. Knowledge about what to do as opposed to how to do it. II. Frame b. A premise of a rule that is not concluded by any rule. III. Declarative knowledge  c. A method of knowledge representation that uses a graph. IV. Primitive d. A data structure representing stereotypical knowledge.  Codes :   I II III IV    (1) d a b c  (2) d c a b  (3) d c b a  (4) c d a b 

72. In Artificial Intelligence , a semantic network  (1) is a graph-based method of knowledge representation where nodes represent concepts and arcs represent relations between concepts.   (2) is a graph-based method of knowledge representation where nodes represent relations between concepts and arcs represent concepts.  (3) represents an entity as a set of slots and associated rules.  (4) is a subset of first-order logic. 

73. Criticism free idea generation is a factor of _____.
 (1) Decision Support System
 (2) Group Decision Support System
 (3) Enterprise Resource Support System
 (4) Artificial Intelligence  

74. Consider the following logical inferences : 
 I1 : If it is Sunday then school will not open.
  The school was open.
  Inference : It was not Sunday.
 I2 : If it is Sunday then school will not open.
  It was not Sunday.
  Inference : The school was open. 
  Which of the following is correct ?
 (1) Both I1 and I2 are correct inferences.
 (2) I1 is correct but I2 is not a correct inference.
 (3) I1 is not correct but I2 is a correct inference.
 (4) Both I1 and I2 are not correct inferences.  

75. Which formal system provides the semantic foundation for Prolog ?
 (1) Predicate calculus 
 (2) Lambda calculus
 (3) Hoare logic 
 (4) Propositional logic 
_______________

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