Tuesday, January 3, 2017

Computer Science Paper 3 NET Exam question paper June 2016

Paper-III   J-87-16

COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
PAPER – III 
1. A ripple counter is a (n) :
 (1) Synchronous Counter (2) Asynchronous counter
 (3) Parallel counter (4) None of the above  

2. 8085 microprocessor has ____ bit ALU.
 (1) 32 (2) 16
 (3) 8 (4) 4 

3. The register that stores the bits required to mask the interrupts is ______.
 (1) Status register (2) Interrupt service register 
 (3) Interrupt mask register (4) Interrupt request register  

4. Which of the following in 8085 microprocessor performs 
 HL = HL + HL ?
 (1) DAD D (2) DAD H
 (3) DAD B (4) DAD SP 

5. In ______ addressing mode, the operands are stored in the memory. The address of the corresponding memory location is given in a register which is specified in the instruction.
 (1) Register direct (2) Register indirect
 (3) Base indexed (4) Displacement 

6. The output of the following combinational circuit  
 is :
 (1) X . Y (2) X + Y
 (3) X ⊕ Y (4) X ⊕ Y  

7. Which of the following statements is/are True regarding some advantages that an object-
oriented DBMS (OODBMS) offers over a relational database ?
 I. An OODBMS avoids the “impedance mismatch” problem. 
 II. An OODBMS avoids the “phantom” problem.
 III. An OODBMS provides higher performance concurrency control than most
relational databases. 
 IV. An OODBMS provides faster access to individual data objects once they have been
read from disk.
 (1) II and III only (2) I and IV only
 (3) I, II, and III only (4) I, III and IV only 

8. The Global conceptual Schema in a distributed database contains information about global
relations. The condition that all the data of the global relation must be mapped into the
fragments, that is, it must not happen that a data item which belongs to a global relation
does not belong to any fragment, is called :
 (1) Disjointness condition  
 (2) Completeness condition 
 (3) Reconstruction condition  
 (4) Aggregation condition 

9. Suppose database table T1(P, R) currently has tuples {(10, 5), (15, 8), (25, 6)} and table T2 (A, C) currently has {(10, 6), (25, 3), (10, 5)}. Consider the following three relational algebra queries RA1, RA2 and RA3 :
 RA1 : T1  T1.P = T2.A T2 where   is natural join symbol
 RA2 : T1    T1.P = T2.A T2 where     is left outer join symbol
 RA3 : T1  T1.P = T2.A and T1.R = T2.C T2 
 The number of tuples in the resulting table of RA1, RA2 and RA3 are given by :
 (1) 2, 4, 2 respectively (2) 2, 3, 2 respectively
 (3) 3, 3, 1 respectively (4) 3, 4, 1 respectively  

10. Consider the table R with attributes A, B and C. The functional dependencies that hold on R are : A → B, C → AB. Which of the following statements is/are True ?
 I. The decomposition of R into R1(C, A) and R2(A, B) is lossless.
 II. The decomposition of R into R1(A, B) and R2(B, C) is lossy.
 (1) Only I (2) Only II
 (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II 

11. Consider the following ORACLE relations :
 One (x, y) = {<2, 5>, <1, 6>, <1, 6>, <1, 6>, <4, 8>, <4, 8>}
 Two (x, y) = {<2, 55>, <1, 1>, <4, 4>, <1, 6>, <4, 8>, <4, 8>, <9, 9>, <1, 6>}
 Consider the following two SQL queries SQ1 and SQ2 :
 SQ1 :  SELECT * FROM One)
          EXCEPT
  (SELECT * FROM Two);
 SQ2 :  SELECT * FROM One)
        EXCEPT ALL
  (SELECT * FROM Two);
 For each of the SQL queries, what is the cardinality (number of rows) of the result obtained when applied to the instances above ?
 (1) 2 and 1 respectively (2) 1 and 2 respectively
 (3) 2 and 2 respectively (4) 1 and 1 respectively

12. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched in the context of database  design ?
List – I (Database term) List – II (Definition)
I. Specialization     A. Result of taking the union of two or more disjoint (lower-level) entity sets to produce a higher-level entity set.
II. Generalization     B. Express the number of entities to which another entity can be associated via a relationship set.
III. Aggregation     C. Result of taking a subset of a higher-level entity set to form a lower-level entity set.
IV. Mapping cardinalitiesD. An abstraction in which relationship sets (along with their associated entity sets) are treated as higher-level entity sets, and can participate in relationships. 
Codes :
  I II III IV
 (1) D A B C
 (2) D C B A
 (3) C D A B
 (4) C A D B 

13. Consider a raster grid having XY-axes in positive X-direction and positive upward
Y-direction with Xmax = 10, Xmin = –5, Ymax = 11, and Ymin = 6. What is the address of memory pixel with location (5, 4) in raster grid assuming base address 1 (one) ?
 (1) 150 (2) 151
 (3) 160 (4) 161 

14. Consider a N-bit plane frame buffer with W-bit wide lookup table with W > N. How many intensity levels are available at a time ?
 (1) 2N (2) 2W
 (3) 2N+W (4) 2N–1 

15. Consider the Breshenham’s line generation algorithm for a line with gradient greater than one, current point (xi, yi) and decision parameter, di. The next point to be plotted          (xi+1, yi+1) and updated decision parameter, di+1, for di < 0 are given as _______.
 (1) xi+1 = xi+1
  yi+1 = yi 
  di+1 = di + 2 dy 
 (2) xi+1 = xi 
  yi+1 = yi + 1
  di+1 = di + 2 dx
 (3) xi+1 = xi 
  yi+1 = yi + 1
  di+1 = di + 2 (dx – dy)
 (4) xi+1 = xi + 1
  yi+1 = yi + 1
  di+1 = di + 2 (dy – dx) 

16. A point P(2, 5) is rotated about a pivot point (1, 2) by 60°. What is the new transformed point P' ?
 (1) (1, 4) (2) (–1, 4)
 (3) (1, – 4) (4) (– 4, 1) 

17. In perspective projection (from 3D to 2D), objects behind the centre of projection are projected upside down and backward onto the view-plane. This is known as _____.
 (1) Topological distortion  
 (2) Vanishing point 
 (3) View confusion  
 (4) Perspective foreshortening  

18. The Liang-Barsky line clipping algorithm uses the parametric equation of a line from            (x1, y1) to (x2, y2) along with its infinite extension which is given as :  x = x1 + ∆x.u  y = y1 + ∆y.u  Where ∆x = x2 – x1, ∆y = y2 – y1, and u is the parameter with 0 <  u < 1. A line AB with end points A(–1, 7) and B(11, 1) is to be clipped against a rectangular window with              xmin = 1, xmax = 9, ymin = 2, and ymax = 8. The lower and upper bound values of the parameter u for the clipped line using Liang-Barsky algorithm is given as :
 (1) (0, 2 3 ) (2)   
  1 6 , 5 6
 
 (3) (0, 1 3 ) (4) (0, 1) 

19. Match the following with reference to Functional programming history :
a. Lambda calculus i. Church, 1932
b. Lambda calculus as programming language 
ii. Wordsworth, 1970
c. Lazy evaluation iii. Haskel, 1990
d. Type classes iv. Mecarthy, 1960 
Codes :
  a b c d
 (1) iv i iii ii
 (2) i iv ii iii
 (3) iii ii iv i
 (4) ii i iv iii 

20. Aliasing in the context of programming languages refers to :
 (1) Multiple variables having the same location 
 (2) Multiple variables having the same identifier 
 (3) Multiple variables having the same value 
 (4) Multiple use of same variable 

21. Assume that the program ‘P’ is implementing parameter passing with ‘call by reference’. What will be printed by following print statements in P ?  Program P( )  {   x = 10;   y = 3;   funb (y, x, x)   print x;   print y;  }   funb (x, y, z)   {      y = y + 4;      z = x + y + z;   }  (1) 10, 7 (2) 31, 3  (3) 10, 3 (4) 31, 7 
22. The regular grammar for the language L = {anbm | n + m is even} is given by   (1) S → S1 | S2   S1 → a S1 | A1   A1 → b A1 | λ   S2 → aaS2 | A2   A2 → b A2 | λ  (2) S → S1 | S2   S1 → a S1 | a A1   S2 → aa S2 | A2   A1 → bA1 | λ   A2 → bA2 | λ  (3) S → S1 | S2   S1 → aaa S1 | aA1   S2 → aaS2 | A2   A1 → bA1 | λ   A2 → bA2 | λ  (4) S → S1 | S2   S1 → aa S1 | A1   S2 → aaS2 | aA2   A1 → bbA1 | λ   A2 → bbA2 | b

23. Let Σ = {a, b} and language L = {aa, bb}. Then, the complement of L is 
 (1) {λ, a, b, ab, ba} ∪ {w∈{a, b}* | |w| > 3}
 (2) {a, b, ab, ba} ∪ {w∈{a, b}* | |w| > 3}
 (3) {w  ∈ { a, b}* | |w| > 3} ∪ {a, b, ab, ba}
 (4) {λ, a, b, ab, ba} ∪ {w ∈ {a, b}* | |w| > 3} 

24. Consider the following identities for regular expressions : 
 (a) (r + s)* = (s + r)*
 (b) (r*)* = r*
 (c) (r* s*)* = (r + s)*
 Which of the above identities are true ?
 (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
 (3) (c) and (a) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) 

25. Suppose transmission rate of a channel is 32 kbps. If there are ‘8’ routes from source to destination and each packet p contains 8000 bits. Total end to end delay in sending packet P is _____.
 (1) 2 sec (2) 3 sec
 (3) 4 sec (4) 1 sec 

26. Consider the following statements :
 A. High speed Ethernet works on optic fiber.
 B. A point to point protocol over Ethernet is a network protocol for encapsulating PPP frames inside Ethernet frames.
 C. High speed Ethernet does not work on optic fiber.
 D. A point to point protocol over Ethernet is a network protocol for encapsulating Ethernet frames inside PPP frames.
 Which of the following is correct ?
 (1) A and B are true; C and D are false.
 (2) A and B are false; C and D are true.
 (3) A, B, C and D are true.
 (4) A, B, C and D are false.

27. In CRC checksum method, assume that given frame for transmission is 1101011011 and the generator polynomial is G(x) = x4 + x + 1. 
 After implementing CRC encoder, the encoded word sent from sender side is _____.
 (1) 11010110111110 
 (2) 11101101011011
 (3) 110101111100111 
 (4) 110101111001111 

28. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200 bits frames using a shared channel with 200 kbps bandwidth. If the system (all stations put together) produces 1000 frames per second, then the throughput of the system is _______.
 (1) 0.268 (2) 0.468
 (3) 0.368 (4) 0.568 

29. An analog signal has a bit rate of 8000 bps and a baud rate of 1000. 
 Then analog signal has _____ signal elements and carry _____ data elements in each signal.
 (1) 256, 8 bits 
 (2) 128, 4 bits
 (3) 256, 4 bits 
 (4) 128, 8 bits 

30. The plain text message BAHI encrypted with RSA algorithm using e = 3, d = 7 and n = 33 and the characters of the message are encoded using the values 00 to 25 for letters A to Z. Suppose character by character encryption was implemented. Then, the Cipher Text message is _____.
 (1) ABHI 
 (2) HAQC
 (3) IHBA 
 (4) BHQC

31. Consider the problem of a chain <A1, A2, A3, A4> of four matrices. Suppose that the dimensions of the matrices A1, A2, A3 and A4 are 30 × 35, 35 × 15, 15 × 5 and 5 × 10 respectively. The minimum number of scalar multiplications needed to compute the product A1A2A3A4 is ____.
 (1) 14875 (2) 21000
 (3) 9375 (4) 11875 

32. Consider a hash table of size m = 10000, and the hash function h(K) = floor                
(m(KA mod 1)) for A = ( 5 – 1)/2. The key 123456 is mapped to location ______.
 (1) 46 (2) 41
 (3) 43 (4) 48 

33. Consider a weighted complete graph G on the vertex set {ν1, ν2, …. νn} such that the weight of the edge (νi, νj) is 4 | i – j|. The weight of minimum cost spanning tree of G is :
 (1) 4n2 (2) n
 (3) 4n – 4  (4) 2n – 2  

34. A priority queue is implemented as a max-heap. Initially, it has five elements. The level- order traversal of the heap is as follows :
 20, 18, 15, 13, 12
 Two new elements ‘10’ and ‘17’ are inserted in the heap in that order. The level-order traversal of the heap after the insertion of the element is :
 (1) 20, 18, 17, 15, 13, 12, 10 
 (2) 20, 18, 17, 12, 13, 10, 15
 (3) 20, 18, 17, 10, 12, 13, 15 
 (4) 20, 18, 17, 13, 12, 10, 15 

35. If there are n integers to sort, each integer has d digits, and each digit is in the set                {1, 2, …, k}, radix sort can sort the numbers in :
 (1) O (k (n + d)) (2) O (d (n + k))
 (3) O ((n + k) l g d) (4) O ((n + d) l g k) 

36. Match the following :
a. Prim’s algorithm i. O(V2E)
b. Bellman-Ford algorithm  ii. O(VE lgV)
c. Floyd-Warshall algorithm  iii. O(E lgV)
d. Johnson’s algorithm iv. O(V3)
 Where V is the set of nodes and E is the set of edges in the graph. 
Codes :
  a b c d
 (1) i iii iv ii
 (2) i iii ii iv
 (3) iii i iv ii
 (4) iii i ii iv 

37. Constructors have _____ return type.
 (1) void (2) char
 (3) int (4) no 

38. Method over-riding can be prevented by using final as a modifier at ______.
 (1) the start of the class.
 (2) the start of method declaration.
 (3) the start of derived class.
 (4) the start of the method declaration in the derived class. 

39. Which of the following is a correct statement ?
 (1) Composition is a strong type of association between two classes with full ownership.
 (2) Composition is a strong type of association between two classes with partial ownership. 
 (3) Composition is a weak type of association between two classes with partial ownership.
 (4) Composition is a weak type of association between two classes with strong ownership. 

40. Which of the following is not a correct statement ?
 (1) Every class containing abstract method must be declared abstract.
 (2) Abstract class can directly be initiated with ‘new’ operator.
 (3) Abstract class can be initiated.
 (4) Abstract class does not contain any definition of implementation.  

41. Which of the following tag in HTML is used to surround information, such as signature of the person who created the page ?
 (1) <body> </body> (2) <address> </address>
 (3) <strong> </strong> (4) <em> </em> 

42. Java uses threads to enable the entire environment to be ______.
 (1) Symmetric (2) Asymmetric
 (3) Synchronous (4) Asynchronous  

43. An Operating System (OS) crashes on the average once in 30 days, that is, the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) = 30 days. When this happens, it takes 10 minutes to recover the OS, that is, the Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 10 minutes. The availability of the OS with these reliability figures is approximately :
 (1) 96.97% (2) 97.97%
 (3) 99.009% (4) 99.97%

44. Match each software lifecycle model in List – I to its description in List – II :
 List – I              List – II
I. Code-and-Fix         a. Assess risks at each step; do most critical action first.
II. Evolutionary prototyping      b. Build an initial small requirement specifications, code it, then “evolve” the specifications and code as needed.
III. Spiral             c. Build initial requirement specification for several releases, then design-and-code in sequence
IV. Staged Delivery         d. Standard phases (requirements, design, code, test) in order
V. Waterfall         e. Write some code, debug it, repeat                        (i.e. ad-hoc) 
Codes :
  I II III IV V
 (1) e b a c d
 (2) e c a b d
 (3) d a b c e
 (4) c e a b d 

45. Match each software term in List – I to its description in List – II :
 List – I  List – II
I. Wizards a. Forms that provide structure for a document
II. Templates b. A series of commands grouped into a single command
III. Macro c. A single program that incorporates most commonly used tools
IV. Integrated Software d. Step-by-step guides in application software 
V. Software Suite e. Bundled group of software programs  
Codes :
  I II III IV V
 (1) d a b c e
 (2) b a d c e
 (3) d e b a c
 (4) e c b a d

46. The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software Engineering is 
 (1) ISO 9000 : 2004 (2) ISO 9001 : 2000
 (3) ISO 9002 : 2001 (4) ISO 9003 : 2004 

47. Which of the following are external qualities of a software product ?
 (1) Maintainability, reusability, portability, efficiency, correctness.
 (2) Correctness, reliability, robustness, efficiency, usability.
 (3) Portability, interoperability, maintainability, reusability.
 (4) Robustness, efficiency, reliability, maintainability, reusability. 

48. Which of the following is/are CORRECT statement(s) about version and release ?
 I. A version is an instance of a system, which is functionally identical but non- functionally distinct from other instances of a system.
 II. A version is an instance of a system, which is functionally distinct in some way from other system instances.
 III. A release is an instance of a system, which is distributed to users outside of the development team.
 IV. A release is an instance of a system, which is functionally identical but non- functionally distinct from other instances of a system. 
 (1) I and III (2) II and IV
 (3) I and IV (4) II and III 

49. The Unix Operating System Kernel maintains two key data structures related to processes, the process table and the user structure. Now, consider the following two statements :
 I. The process table is resident all the time and contain information needed for all processes, even those that are not currently in memory.
 II. The user structure is swapped or paged out when its associated process is not in memory, in order not to waste memory on information that is not needed.
 Which of the following options is correct with reference to above statements ?
 (1) Only (I) is correct. (2) Only (II) is correct.
 (3) Both (I) and (II) are correct. (4) Both (I) and (II) are wrong. 

50. Consider a system which have ‘n’ number of processes and ‘m’ number of resource types.
The time complexity of the safety algorithm, which checks whether a system is in safe
state or not, is of the order of :
 (1) O(mn) (2) O(m2n2)
 (3) O(m2n) (4) O(mn2) 

51. An operating system supports a paged virtual memory, using a central processor with a
cycle time of one microsecond. It costs an additional one microsecond to access a page
other than the current one. Pages have 1000 words, and the paging device is a drum that
rotates at 3000 revolutions per minute and transfers one million words per second.
Further, one percent of all instructions executed accessed a page other than the current
page. The instruction that accessed another page, 80% accessed a page already in memory
and when a new page was required, the replaced page was modified 50% of the time.
What is the effective access time on this system, assuming that the system is running only
one process and the processor is idle during drum transfers ?
 (1) 30 microseconds  
 (2) 34 microseconds 
 (3) 60 microseconds  
 (4) 68 microseconds  

52. Consider the following page reference string :
 1, 2, 3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6, 2, 1, 2, 3, 7, 6, 3, 2, 1, 2, 3, 6
 Which of the following options, gives the correct number of page faults related to LRU,
FIFO, and optimal page replacement algorithms respectively, assuming 05 page frames
and all frames are initially empty ?
 (1) 10, 14, 8 (2) 8, 10, 7
 (3) 7, 10, 8 (4) 7, 10, 7 

53. Consider a file currently consisting of 50 blocks. Assume that the file control block and the index block is already in memory. If a block is added at the end (and the block information to be added is stored in memory), then how many disk I/O operations are required for indexed (single-level) allocation strategy ?
 (1) 1 (2) 101
 (3) 27 (4) 0 

54. An experimental file server is up 75% of the time and down for 25% of the time due to bugs. How many times does this file server have to be replicated to give an availability of at least 99% ?
 (1) 2 (2) 4
 (3) 8 (4) 16 

55. Given the following two languages :  L1 = {uwwRν | u, v, w ∈ {a, b}+}  L2 = {uwwRν | u, ν, w ∈ {a, b}+, |u| > |ν|}
 Which of the following is correct ?   (1) L1 is regular language and L2 is not regular language.  (2) L1 is not regular language and L2 is regular language.  (3) Both L1 and L2 are regular languages.  (4) Both L1 and L2 are not regular languages.  

56. Given a Turing Machine   M = ({q0, q1}, {0, 1}, {0, 1, B}, δ, B, {q1})
 Where δ is a transition function defined as  δ(q0, 0) = (q0, 0, R)
 δ(q0, B) = (q1, B, R)
 The language L(M) accepted by Turing machine is given as :
 (1) 0* 1* (2) 00*
 (3) 10* (4) 1*0*

57. Let G = (V, T, S, P) be a context-free grammar such that every one of its productions is of the form A → ν, with |ν| = k > 1. The derivation tree for any string W ∈ L (G) has a height such that 
 (1) h < (|W| – 1) k – 1 
(2) logk |W| < h
 (3) logk|W| < h < (|W| – 1) k – 1 
(4) logk|W| < h < (|W| – 1) k – 1  

58. Which of the following is not used in standard JPEG image compression ?
 (1) Huffman coding (2) Runlength encoding
 (3) Zig-zag scan (4) K-L Transform  

59. Which of the following is a source coding technique ?
 (1) Huffman coding (2) Arithmetic coding 
 (3) Run-length coding  (4) DPCM 

60. If the histogram of an image is clustered towards origin on X-axis of a histogram plot then it indicates that the image is ______.
 (1) Dark (2) Good contrast
 (3) Bright (4) Very low contrast  

61. Consider the following linear programming problem :
 Max. z = 0.50 x2 – 0.10x1
 Subject to the constraints
  2x1 + 5x2 < 80
  x1 + x2 < 20
 and x1, x2 > 0
 The total maximum profit (z) for the above problem is :
 (1) 6 (2) 8
 (3) 10 (4) 12

62. Consider the following statements :
 (a) If primal (dual) problem has a finite optimal solution, then its dual (primal) problem has a finite optimal solution.
 (b) If primal (dual) problem has an unbounded optimum solution, then its dual (primal) has no feasible solution at all.
 (c) Both primal and dual problems may be infeasible.
 Which of the following is correct ?
 (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
 (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) 

63. Consider the following statements :
 (a) Assignment problem can be used to minimize the cost.
 (b) Assignment problem is a special case of transportation problem.
 (c) Assignment problem requires that only one activity be assigned to each resource.
 Which of the following options is correct ?
 (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
 (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) 

64. What are the following sequence of steps taken in designing a fuzzy logic machine ?
 (1) Fuzzification → Rule evaluation → Defuzzification 
 (2) Fuzzification → Defuzzification → Rule evaluation 
 (3) Rule evaluation → Fuzzification → Defuzzification
 (4) Rule evaluation → Defuzzification → Fuzzification 

65. Which of the following 2 input Boolean logic functions is linearly inseparable ?
 (a) AND (b) OR
 (c) NOR (d) XOR
 (e) NOT XOR
 (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
 (3) (c), (d) and (e) (4) (d) and (e)

66. Let R and S be two fuzzy relations defined as                   y1       y2
  R =
x 1
x 2
  
  0.7 0.5 0.8 0.4  
                                 z1       z2       z3
 and S = y1 y2
  
  0.9 0.6 0.2 0.1 0.7 0.5 
 Then, the resulting relation, T, which relates elements of universe of X to elements of
universe of Z using max-product composition is given by
                                 z1            z2         z3
 (1) T  =
x 1
x 2
  
  0.68 0.89 0.39 0.76 0.72 0.32
 
  
                                 z1            z2         z3
 (2) T  =
x 1
x 2
  
  0.68 0.89 0.39 0.72 0.76 0.32
  
                                 z1            z2         z3
 (3) T  =
x 1
x 2
  
  0.63 0.42 0.25 0.72 0.48 0.20
  
                                 z1            z2         z3
 (4) T  =
x 1
x 2
  
  0.05 0.35 0.14 0.04 0.28 0.16
  
67. Consider the following operations to be performed in Unix :
 “The pipe sorts all files in the current directory modified in the month of “June” by order
of size and prints them to the terminal screen. The sort option skips ten fields then sorts
the lines in numeric order.”
 Which of the following Unix command will perform above set of operations ?
 (1) ls – l | grep “June” | sort + 10n
 (2) ls – l | grep “June” | sort + 10r
 (3) ls – l | grep – v “June” | sort + 10n
 (4) ls – l | grep – n “June” | sort + 10x 

68. Which of the following statements is incorrect for a Windows Multiple Document
Interface (MDI) ?
 (1) Each document in an MDI application is displayed in a separate child window
within the client area of the application’s main window.
 (2) An MDI application has three kinds of windows namely a frame window, an MDI
client window and number of child windows.
 (3) An MDI application can support more than one kind of document.
 (4) An MDI application displays output in the client area of the frame window. 

69. Which of the following statement(s) is/are True regarding ‘nice’ command of UNIX ?
 I. It is used to set or change the priority of a process.
 II. A process’s nice value can be set at the time of creation.
 III. ‘nice’ takes a command line as an argument.
 (1) I, II only (2) II, III only
 (3) I, II, III (4) I, III only 

70. Let ν(x) mean x is a vegetarian, m(y) for y is meat, and e(x, y) for x eats y. Based on these, consider the following sentences :
 I. ∀x ν(x ) ⇔ (∀y e(x, y) ⇒ ¬m(y))  II. ∀x ν(x ) ⇔ (¬(∃y m(y) ∧e(x, y)))  III. ∀x (∃y m(y) ∧e(x, y)) ⇔ ¬ν(x)  One can determine that   (1) Only I and II are equivalent sentences   (2) Only II and III are equivalent sentences.  (3) Only I and III are equivalent sentence .  (4) I, II, and III are equivalent sentences. 

71. Match each Artificial Intelligence term in List-I that best describes a given situation in List – II :  List – I  List – II I. Semantic Network a. Knowledge about what to do as opposed to how to do it. II. Frame b. A premise of a rule that is not concluded by any rule. III. Declarative knowledge  c. A method of knowledge representation that uses a graph. IV. Primitive d. A data structure representing stereotypical knowledge.  Codes :   I II III IV    (1) d a b c  (2) d c a b  (3) d c b a  (4) c d a b 

72. In Artificial Intelligence , a semantic network  (1) is a graph-based method of knowledge representation where nodes represent concepts and arcs represent relations between concepts.   (2) is a graph-based method of knowledge representation where nodes represent relations between concepts and arcs represent concepts.  (3) represents an entity as a set of slots and associated rules.  (4) is a subset of first-order logic. 

73. Criticism free idea generation is a factor of _____.
 (1) Decision Support System
 (2) Group Decision Support System
 (3) Enterprise Resource Support System
 (4) Artificial Intelligence  

74. Consider the following logical inferences : 
 I1 : If it is Sunday then school will not open.
  The school was open.
  Inference : It was not Sunday.
 I2 : If it is Sunday then school will not open.
  It was not Sunday.
  Inference : The school was open. 
  Which of the following is correct ?
 (1) Both I1 and I2 are correct inferences.
 (2) I1 is correct but I2 is not a correct inference.
 (3) I1 is not correct but I2 is a correct inference.
 (4) Both I1 and I2 are not correct inferences.  

75. Which formal system provides the semantic foundation for Prolog ?
 (1) Predicate calculus 
 (2) Lambda calculus
 (3) Hoare logic 
 (4) Propositional logic 
_______________

Thursday, December 29, 2016

Solve Computer Science based Questions

 June 2016 Computer Science Paper 2 :-
1. The Boolean function [~ (~p∧q)∧~(~p∧~q)]∨(p∧r) is equal to the Boolean function : 
 (1) q (2) p ∧ r
 (3) p ∨ q (4) p 

2. Let us assume that you construct ordered tree to represent the  compound proposition           (~ (p∧q)) ↔ (~ p ∨ ~ q). 
 Then, the prefix expression and post-fix expression determined using this ordered tree are
given as ____ and _____ respectively.
 (1) ↔~∧pq∨ ~ ~ pq, pq∧~p~q~∨↔ (2) ↔~∧pq∨ ~ p~q, pq∧~p~q~∨↔
 (3) ↔~∧pq∨ ~ ~ pq, pq∧~p~ ~q∨↔ (4) ↔~∧pq∨ ~ p~ q, pq∧~p~ ~q∨↔ 

3. Let A and B be sets in a finite universal set U. Given the following :
 |A – B|, |A ⊕ B|, |A| + |B| and |A ∪ B|
 Which of the following is in order of increasing size ?
 (1) |A – B| < |A ⊕ B| < |A| + |B| < |A ∪ B| 
 (2) |A ⊕ B| < |A – B| < |A ∪ B| < |A| + |B|
 (3) |A ⊕ B| < |A| + |B| < |A – B| < |A ∪  B|
 (4) |A – B| < |A ⊕ B| < |A ∪ B| < |A| + |B|

4. What is the probability that a randomly selected bit string of length 10 is a palindrome ?
 (1) 1 / 64
 (2) 1 / 32 
 (3) 1 / 8 
 (4) 1 / 4
  
5. Which of the following is a sequential circuit ?
 (1) Multiplexer
 (2) Decoder
  (3) Counter
(4) Full adder 

6. The octal number 326.4 is equivalent to 
 (1) (214.2)10 and (D6.8)16 (2) (212.5)10 and (D6.8)16
 (3) (214.5)10 and (D6.8)16 (4) (214.5)10 and (D6.4)16 

7. Which of the following is the most efficient to perform arithmetic operations on the
numbers ?
 (1) Sign-magnitude (2) 1’s complement
 (3) 2’s complement (4) 9’s complement 

8. 8085 microprocessor has _____ hardware interrupts.
(1) 2
(2) 3 
(3) 4
(4) 5 

9. Which of the following logic operations is performed by the following given combinational circuit ? 
 (1) EXCLUSIVE-OR (2) EXCLUSIVE-NOR  (3) NAND (4) NOR 

10. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Controlled Inverter  i. a circuit that can add 3 bits
b. Full adder ii. a circuit that can add two binary numbers
c. Half adder iii. a circuit that transmits a binary word or its 1’s complement
d. Binary adder iv. a logic circuit that adds 2 bits 
Codes :
     a b c d 
(1) iii ii iv i
(2) ii iv i iii 
(3) iii iv i ii 
(4) iii i iv ii

11. Given i= 0, j = 1, k = – 1
 x = 0.5, y = 0.0
 What is the output of given ‘C’ expression ?
 x * 3 & & 3 || j | k
 (1) –1 (2) 0
 (3) 1 (4) 2 

12. The following ‘C’ statement :
 int * f[ ]( ) ;
 declares :
 (1) A function returning a pointer to an array of integers.
 (2) Array of functions returning pointers to integers.
 (3) A function returning an array of pointers to integers.
 (4) An illegal statement. 

13. If a function is friend of a class, which one of the following is wrong ?
 (1) A function can only be declared a friend by a class itself.
 (2) Friend functions are not members of a class, they are associated with it.
 (3) Friend functions are members of a class.
 (4) It can have access to all members of the class, even private ones. 

14. In C++, polymorphism requires :
 (1) Inheritance only 
 (2) Virtual functions only
 (3) References only 
 (4) Inheritance, Virtual functions and references 

15. A function template in C++ provides _____ level of generalization.
 (1) 4 (2) 3
 (3) 2 (4) 1 

16. DBMS provides the facility of accessing data from a database through 
 (1) DDL (2) DML
 (3) DBA (4) Schema 

17. Relational database schema normalization is NOT for :
 (1) reducing the number of joins required to satisfy a query.
 (2) eliminating uncontrolled redundancy of data stored in the database.
 (3) eliminating number of anomalies that could otherwise occur with inserts and deletes.
 (4) ensuring that functional dependencies are enforced. 

18. Consider the following statements regarding relational database model :
 (a) NULL values can be used to opt a tuple out of enforcement of a foreign key.
 (b) Suppose that table T has only one candidate key. If Q is in 3NF, then it is also in
BCNF.
 (c) The difference between the project operator (Π) in relational algebra and the
SELECT keyword in SQL is that if the resulting table/set has more than one occurrences of the same tuple, then Π will return only one of them, while SQL
SELECT will return all.
 One can determine that :
 (1) (a) and (b) are true. (2) (a) and (c) are true.
 (3) (b) and (c) are true. (4) (a), (b) and (c) are true. 

19. Consider the following Entity-Relationship (E-R) diagram and three possible relationship
sets (I, II and III) for this E-R diagram : 
I : P Q S T  II : P Q S T  III: P Q S T
 p1 q1 s1 t1   p1 q1 s1 t1   p1 q1 s1 t1
 p1 q1 s1 t2   p1 q1 s2 t2   p1 q2 s1 t1
 If different symbols stand for different values (e.g., t1 is definitely not equal to t2), then
which of the above could not be the relationship set for the E-R diagram ?
 (1) I only (2) I and II only
 (3) II only (4) I, II and III 

20. Consider  a database table R with attributes A and B. Which of the following SQL queries
is illegal ?
 (1) SELECT A FROM R;
 (2) SELECT A, COUNT(*) FROM R;
 (3) SELECT A, COUNT(*) FROM R GROUP BY A;
 (4) SELECT A, B, COUNT(*) FROM R GROUP BY A, B; 

21. Consider an implementation of unsorted single linked list. Suppose it has its
representation with a head and a tail pointer (i.e. pointers to the first and last nodes of the
linked list). Given the representation, which of the following operation can not be
implemented in O(1) time ?
 (1) Insertion at the front of the linked list.
 (2) Insertion at the end of the linked list.
 (3) Deletion of the front node of the linked list.
 (4) Deletion of the last node of the linked list.

22. Consider an undirected graph G where self-loops are not allowed. The vertex set of G is
{(i, j) | 1 < i < 12, 1 < j < 12}. There is an edge between (a, b) and (c, d) if |a – c| <  1 or      
| b – d | < 1. The number of edges in this graph is 
 (1) 726 (2) 796
 (3) 506 (4) 616 

23. The runtime for traversing all the nodes of a binary search tree with n nodes and printing
them in an order is 
 (1) O(lg n) (2) O(n lg n)
 (3) O(n) (4) O(n2) 

24. Consider the following statements :
 S1 : A queue can be implemented using two stacks.
 S2 : A stack can be implemented using two queues.
 Which of the following is correct ?
 (1) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
 (2) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.
 (3) Both S1 and S2 are correct.
 (4) Both S1 and S2 are not correct. 

25. Given the following prefix expression :
 * + 3 + 3 ↑ 3 + 3 3 3 
 What is the value of the prefix expression ?
 (1) 2178 (2) 2199
 (3) 2205 (4) 2232

26. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to microwaves ?
 (1) Electromagnetic waves with frequencies from 300 GHz to 400 THz.
 (2) Propagation is line-of-sight.
 (3) Very high-frequency waves cannot penetrate walls.
 (4) Use of certain portions of the band requires permission from authorities. 

27. In a fast Ethernet cabling, 100 Base-TX uses ____ cable and maximum segment size is
_____.
 (1) twisted pair, 100 metres (2) twisted pair, 200 metres
 (3) fibre optics, 1000 metres (4) fibre optics, 2000 metres  

28. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can pass only an average of 12,000 frames per
minute with each frame carrying an average of 10,000 bits. What is the throughput  of this
network ?
 (1) 1 Mbps (2) 2 Mbps
 (3) 10 Mbps (4) 12 Mbps 

29. Match the following :
    List – I                     List – II
a. Session layer     i. Virtual terminal software
b. Application layer     ii. Semantics of the information transmitted 
c. Presentation layer     iii. Flow control
d. Transport layer     iv. Manage dialogue control 
Codes :
  a b c d
 (1) iv i ii iii
 (2) i iv ii iii
 (3) iv i iii ii
 (4) iv ii i iii


30. Which of the following protocols is used by email server to maintain a central repository
that can be accessed from any machine ?
 (1) POP3 
 (2) IMAP
 (3) SMTP 
 (4) DMSP 

31. The number of strings of length 4 that are generated by the regular expression                 (0+ 1+ | 2+ 3+)*, where | is an alternation character and {+, *} are quantification

characters,
is :
 (1) 08 (2) 09
 (3) 10 (4) 12 

32. The content of the accumulator after the execution of the following 8085 assembly
language program, is 
 MVI A, 35H
 MOV B, A
 STC
 CMC
 RAR
 XRA B
 (1) 00H (2) 35H
 (3) EFH (4) 2FH 

33. In compiler optimization, operator strength reduction uses mathematical identities to
replace slow math operations with faster operations. Which of the following code
replacements is an illustration of operator strength reduction ?
 (1) Replace P + P by 2 * P or Replace 3 + 4 by 7.
 (2) Replace P * 32 by P < < 5
 (3) Replace P * 0 by 0 
 (4) Replace (P < <4) – P by P * 15 

34. Which of the following are the principles tasks of the linker ?
 I. Resolve external references among separately compiled program units.
 II. Translate assembly language to machine code.
 III. Relocate code and data relative to the beginning of the program.
 IV. Enforce access-control restrictions on system libraries. 
 (1) I and II (2) I and III
 (3) II and III (4) I and IV 

35. Which of the following is FALSE ?
 (1) The grammar S→aS|aSbS|∈, where S is the only non-terminal symbol, and ∈ is the
null string, is ambiguous.  
 (2) An unambiguous grammar has same left most and right most derivation.
 (3) An ambiguous grammar can never be LR(k) for any k.
 (4) Recursive descent parser is a top-down parser.

36. Consider a system with seven processes A through G and six resources R through W.
 Resource ownership is as follows :
 process A holds R and wants T
 process B holds nothing but wants T
 process C holds nothing but wants S
 process D holds U and wants S & T
 process E holds T and wants V
 process F holds W and wants S
 process G holds V and wants U
 Is the system deadlocked ? If yes, ______ processes are deadlocked.
 (1) No (2) Yes, A, B, C
 (3) Yes, D, E, G (4) Yes, A, B, F 

37. Suppose that the virtual Address space has eight pages and physical memory with four
page frames. If LRU page replacement algorithm is used, _____ number of page faults
occur with the reference string.
 0 2 1 3 5 4 6 3 7 4 7 3 3 5 5 3 1 1 1 7 2 3 4 1
 (1) 11 (2) 12
 (3) 10 (4) 9 

38. Consider a system having ‘m’ resources of the same type. These resources are shared by three processes P1, P2 and P3 which have peak demands of 2, 5 and 7 resources
respectively. For what value of ‘m’ deadlock will not occur ?
 (1) 70 (2) 14
 (3) 13 (4) 7

39. Five jobs A, B, C, D and E are waiting in Ready Queue. Their expected runtimes are 9, 6,
3, 5 and x respectively. All jobs entered in Ready queue at time zero. They must run in
_____ order to minimize average response time if 3 < x < 5.
 (1) B, A, D, E, C (2) C, E, D, B, A
 (3) E, D, C, B, A (4) C, B, A, E, D 

40. Consider three CPU intensive processes P1, P2, P3 which require 20, 10 and 30 units of
time, arrive at times 1, 3 and 7 respectively. Suppose operating system is implementing
Shortest Remaining Time first (preemptive scheduling) algorithm, then _____ context
switches are required (suppose context switch at the beginning of Ready queue and at the
end of Ready queue are not counted). 
 (1) 3
(2) 2
 (3) 4
(4) 5 

41. Which of the following is used to determine the specificity of requirements ?
 (1) n1 n2 
(2) n2 n1
 (3) n1 + n2
(4) n1 – n2
 Where n1 is the number of requirements for which all reviewers have identical interpretations, n2 is number of requirements in a specification.  

42. The major shortcoming of waterfall model is 
 (1) the difficulty in accommodating changes after requirement analysis. 
 (2) the difficult in accommodating changes after feasibility analysis.
 (3) the system testing.
 (4) the maintenance of system. 


43. The quick design of a software that is visible to end users leads to _____.
 (1) iterative model 
 (2) prototype model
 (3) spiral model 
 (4) waterfall model  

44. For a program of k variables, boundary value analysis yields ______ test cases. 
 (1) 4k – 1  (2) 4k 
 (3) 4k + 1 (4) 2k – 1  

45. The extent to which a software performs its intended functions without failures, is termed
as 
 (1) Robustness 
 (2) Correctness
 (3) Reliability 
 (4) Accuracy 


46. An attacker sits between the sender and receiver and captures the information and
retransmits to the receiver after some time without altering the information. This attack is
called as _____.
 (1) Denial of service attack 
 (2) Masquarade attack 
 (3) Simple attack 
 (4) Complex attack 

47. _______ is subject oriented, integrated, time variant, nonvolatile collection of data in
support of management decisions. 
 (1) Data mining  
 (2) Web mining 
 (3) Data warehouse  
 (4) Database Management System  

48. In Data mining, classification rules are extracted from _______.
 (1) Data (2) Information
 (3) Decision Tree (4) Database 

49. Discovery of cross sales opportunities is called as _____.
 (1) Association  
 (2) Visualization
 (3) Correlation 
 (4) Segmentation  

50. In Data mining, ______ is a method of incremental conceptual clustering.
 (1) STRING 
 (2) COBWEB
 (3) CORBA 
 (4) OLAD

Solve interview question

Awesome Answers In Competitive Examination

Read And Share

Q. How can you drop a raw egg onto a concrete floor without cracking it?
A. Concrete floors are very hard to crack!

Q. If it took eight men ten hours to build a wall, how long would it take four men to build it?
A. No time at all it is already been built.

Q. If you had three apples and four oranges in one hand and four apples and three oranges in the other hand, what would you have?
A. Very large hands.

Q. How can you lift an elephant with one hand?
A. you will never find an elephant with one

Q. How can a man go eight days without sleep?
A. No Probs, He sleeps at night.

Q. If you throw a red stone into the blue sea what it will become?
A. It will Wet or Sink as simple as that.

Q. What looks like half apple ?
A: The other half.

Q. What can you never eat for breakfast?
A: Dinner.

Q. Bay of Bengal is in which state?
A: Liquid

Interviewer said "I shall either ask you ten easy questions or one really difficult question. Think well before you make up your mind!" The boy thought for a while and said, "my choice is one really difficult question." "Well, good luck to you, you have made your own choice! Now tell me this.
"What comes first, Day or Night?"
The boy was jolted into reality as his admission depends on the correctness of his answer, but he thought for a while and said, "It's the DAY sir!"
"How" the interviewer asked.
"Sorry sir, you promised me that you will not ask me a SECOND difficult question!"

Tuesday, December 27, 2016

Solve new Question

1. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to effectiveness of teaching :
  List of factors :
(a) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject. 
(b) Teacher’s socio-economic background. 
(c) Communication skill of the teacher.
(d) Teacher’s ability to please the students.
(e) Teacher’s personal contact with students.
(f) Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions. 
Codes : 
(1) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (c), (d) and (f) 
(3) (b), (d) and (e)
(4) (a), (c) and (f) 

2. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of  
(1) attracting students’ attention in the class room. 
(2) minimising indiscipline problems in the classroom. 
(3) optimising learning outcomes of students. 
(4) effective engagement of students in learning tasks. 

3. Assertion (A) : The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative thinking abilities among students. 
Reason (R) : These abilities ensure job placements. 
Choose the correct answer from the following code : 
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false. 
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true. 

4. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of evaluation system.
 Choose the correct code :
 Set – I                 Set – II
a. Formative evaluation         i. Evaluating cognitive and co-cognitive aspects with regularity
b. Summative evaluation         ii. Tests and their interpretations based on a group and certain yardsticks
c. Continuous and comprehensive evaluation     iii. Grading the final learning outcomes
d. Norm and criterion referenced tests     iv. Quizzes and discussions 

Codes :
      a     b     c     d
 (1)     iv     iii     i     ii
 (2)     i     ii     iii     iv
 (3)     iii     iv     ii     i
 (4)     i     iii     iv     ii


5. A researcher intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of effective mid-day meal interventions.
 Which research method will be most appropriate for this study ? 
(1) Historical method
(2) Descriptive survey method 
(3) Experimental method
(4) Ex-post-facto method 

6. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research ?
(1) Developing a research design
(2) Formulating a research question 
(3) Deciding about the data analysis procedure 
(4) Formulating a research hypothesis 

7. The format of thesis writing is the same as in 
(1) preparation of a research paper/article 
(2) writing of seminar presentation 
(3) a research dissertation 
(4) presenting a workshop / conference paper 

8. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical ? 
(1) Data collection with standardised research tools. 
(2) Sampling design with probability sample techniques. 
(3) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences. 
(4) Data gathering to take place with top-down systematic evidences. 

9. From the following list of statements identify the set which has negative implications for ‘research ethics’ : 
(i) A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research. 
(ii) Related studies are cited without proper references. 
(iii) Research findings are made the basis for policy making. 
(iv) Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences. 
(v) A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches. 
(vi) Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of preliminary studies. 
Codes : 
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) 
(3) (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(4) (i), (iii) and (v) 

10. In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress-proneness of children in completing school projects,
 the hypothesis formulated is that ‘child rearing practices do influence stress-proneness’.
At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is advanced to find out the tenability of research hypothesis.
On the basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance.
What decision may be warranted in respect of the research hypothesis ?
 (1) The research hypothesis will also be rejected. 
(2) The research hypothesis will be accepted. 
(3) Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected. 
(4) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.

Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from 11 to 16 :
 In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of Japanese workers conferred considerable
competitive advantage across numerous durable goods and consumer- electronics industries (eg. Machinery, automobiles, televisions, radios). Then labour-based advantages shifted to South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China appears to be capitalizing best on the basis of labour. Japanese firms still remain competitive in markets for such durable goods, electronics and other products, but the labour force is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers in other industrializing nations. Such shifting of labour-based advantage is clearly not limited to manufacturing industries. Today, a huge number of IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to India, Singapore, and like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces possessing technical skills. However, as educational levels and technical skills continue to rise in other countries, India, Singapore, and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage today are likely to find such advantage cannot be sustained through emergence of new competitors. In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coins and later even paper money restricted financial flows. Subsequently regional concentrations were formed where large banks, industries and markets coalesced. But today capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global commerce no longer requires regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations in places such as New York, London and Tokyo still persist, of course, but the capital concentrated there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over other capitalists distributed worldwide. Only if an organization is able to combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labour, capital, IT) in an effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime. In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view organizational knowledge as a resource with atleast the same level of power and importance as the traditional economic inputs. An organization with superior knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in markets that appreciate the application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering, pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare, and like knowledge-intensive competitive arenas provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider semiconductors (e.g. computer chips), which are made principally of sand and common metals. These ubiquitous and powerful electronic devices are designed within common office buildings, using commercially available tools, and fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence, land is not the key competitive resource in the semiconductor industry.
  Based on the passage answer the following questions :
  11. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry for decades ?
(1) South Korea
(2) Japan 
(3) Mexico
(4) Malaysia 

12. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be sustained in IT and service sectors ?
(1) Due to diminishing levels of skill. 
(2) Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads. 
(3) Because of new competitors. 
(4) Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries. 

13. How can an organisation enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime ? 
(1) Through regional capital flows. 
(2) Through regional interactions among business players. 
(3) By making large banks, industries and markets coalesced. 
(4) By effective use of various instrumentalities. 

14. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets ? 
(1) Access to capital
(2) Common office buildings 
(3) Superior knowledge
(4) Common metals 

15. The passage also mentions about the trend of 
(1) Global financial flow 
(2) Absence of competition in manufacturing industry 
(3) Regionalisation of capitalists 
(4) Organizational incompatibility 

16. What does the author lay stress on in the passage ? 
(1) International commerce
(2) Labour-Intensive industries 
(3) Capital resource management
(4) Knowledge-driven competitive advantage

17. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status. Which method of communication is best suited and normally  employed in such a context ?
 (1) Horizontal communication 
(2) Vertical communication 
(3) Corporate communication 
(4) Cross communication 

18. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing students in a classroom.
(1) Avoidance of proximity 
(2) Voice modulation 
(3) Repetitive pause 
(4) Fixed posture 

19. What are the barriers to effective communication ?
(1) Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.
(2) Dialogue, summary and self-review. 
(3) Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude. 
(4) Personal statements, eye contact and simple narration. 

20. The choice of communication partners is influenced by factors of  
(1) Proximity, utility, loneliness 
(2) Utility, secrecy, dissonance
(3) Secrecy, dissonance, deception 
(4) Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance 

21. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom. 
(1) Use of peer command  
(2) Making aggressive statements 
(3) Adoption of well-established posture 
(4) Being authoritarian 

22. Every communicator has to experience  
(1) Manipulated emotions 
(2) Anticipatory excitement 
(3) The issue of homophiles 
(4) Status dislocation


23. In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of AMERICANS will be 
 (1) YKCPGAYLQ
 (2) BNFSJDBMR
 (3) QLYAGPCKY
 (4) YQKLCYPAG 

24. In the series   3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ..........  The next term will be 
 (1) 63
 (2) 73
 (3) 83
 (4) 93 

25. Two railway tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost ` 177. Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost ` 173. The fare for city B from city A will be `
 (1) 25
 (2) 27
 (3) 30
 (4) 33 

26. A person walks 10 m infront and 10 m to the right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is he now from his starting point ? 
(1) 20 m
(2) 15 m
 (3) 10 m
(4) 5 m 

27. A is sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C. E is mother of D. A is related to D as 
 (1) Grand daughter
 (2) Daughter
  (3) Daughter-in-law
 (4) Sister 

28. In the series   AB, EDC, FGHI, ....?...., OPQRST, the missing term is
  (1) JKLMN
 (2) JMKNL
 (3) NMLKJ
 (4) NMKLJ 

29. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that one is the denial of the other. Which are those propositions ? Select the correct code :  Propositions :
 (a) All women are equal to men
 (b) Some women are equal to men
 (c) Some women are not equal to men
 (d) No women are equal to men
 Codes : 
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (a) and (d) 
(3) (c) and (d) 
(4) (a) and (c)

30. If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the following propositions can be claimed certainly to be true ?  Propositions : 
(1) Some thieves are poor. 
(2) Some thieves are not poor. 
(3) No thief is poor. 
(4) No poor person is a thief. 

31. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the argument involved in it :
 To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one grain will grow. 
(1) Astronomical
 (2) Anthropological 
(3) Deductive
(4) Analogical 

32. Select the code which is not correct about Venn diagram : 
(1) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes. 
(2) It can provide clear method of notation. 
(3) It can be either valid or invalid. 
(4) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity. 

33. Select the code which is not correct in the context of deductive argument with two premises : 
(1) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid. 
(2) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid. 
(3) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a true conclusion may be valid. 
(4) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid. 

34. Given below are two premises and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly or together).
Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn. 
Premises :
 (i) All religious persons are emotional. 
 (ii) Ram is a religious person. 
Conclusions :
(a) Ram is emotional.   
(b) All emotional persons are religious.   
(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.   
(d) Some religious persons are not emotional. 
Codes :   
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 
(2) (a) only 
(3) (a) and (c) only 
(4) (b) and (c) only

The following table shows the percentage profit (%) earned by two companies A and B during the years 2011-15. Answer questions 35-37 based on the data contained in the table : 
    Profit earned by two companies
Year     Percentage Profit (%)
    A     B
2011     20     30
2012     35     40
2013     45     35
2014     40     50
2015     25     35

Where, percent (%) Profit = (Income - Expenditure)/Expenditure * 100

35. If the total expenditure of the two companies was ` 9 lakh in the year 2012 and the expenditure of A and B were in the ratio 2 : 1, then what was the income of the company A in that year ? 
(1) ` 9.2 lakh 
(2) ` 8.1 lakh
 (3) ` 7.2 lakh
 (4) ` 6.0 lakh 

36. What is the average percentage profit earned by the company B ? 
(1) 35%
 (2) 42% 
(3) 38% 
(4) 40%

37. In which year, the percentage profit earned by the company B is less than that of company A ?
  (1) 2012
  (2) 2013
  (3) 2014
  (4) 2015

The following table shows the number of people in different age groups who responded to a survey about their favourite style of music. Use this information to answer the questions that follow :
 (Question 38-40) to the nearest whole percentage :
  Number of people
 Age → Style of  Music ↓     (Years)  15-20     (Years) 21-30     (Years) 31+
Classical                 6         4           17
Pop                 7         5            5
Rock                 6         12           14
Jazz                 1         4           11
Blues                 2         3           15
Hip-Hop                 9         3          4
Ambient                 2         2           2 

38. Approximately what percentage of the total sample were aged 21-30 ? 
(1) 31%
(2) 23% 
(3) 25%
(4) 14% 

39. Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates that Hip-Hop is their favourite style of music ? 
(1) 6%
(2) 8%
 (3) 14%
(4) 12% 

40. What percentage of respondents aged 31+ indicated a favourite style other than classical music ? 
(1) 64%
(2) 60% 
(3) 75%
(4) 50% 

41. The statement “the study, design, development, implementation, support or management of computer-based information systems, particularly software applications and computer Hardware” refers to 
(1) Information Technology (IT) 
(2) Information and Collaborative Technology (ICT) 
(3) Information and Data Technology (IDT) 
(4) Artificial Intelligence (AI) 

42. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the binary equivalent of the decimal number 51 is given by 
(1) 110011
(2) 110010 
(3) 110001
(4) 110100 


43. The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as  
(1) Burning
(2) Zipping 
(3) Digitizing
(4) Ripping 

44. An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipients at once is a 
 (1) Worm
(2) Virus 
(3) Threat
 (4) Spam


45. _________ is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computer’s start-up routine. 
(1) RIM (Read Initial Memory) 
(2) RAM (Random Access Memory)
 (3) ROM (Read Only Memory) 
(4) Cache Memory 

46. An ASCII is a character-encoding scheme that is employed by personal computers in order to represent various characters, numbers and control keys that the computer user selects on the keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for 
 (1) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
  (2) American Standard Code for Intelligent Information
  (3) American Standard Code for Information Integrity
  (4) American Standard Code for Isolated Information 

47. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also respiratory tract of human beings.
 (1) Particulate matter
 (2) Oxides of nitrogen
  (3) Surface ozone
 (4) Carbon monoxide 

48. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India ?
 (1) Untreated sewage
  (2) Agriculture run-off 
(3) Unregulated small scale industries
 (4) Religious practices 

49. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by
 (1) 2022
(2) 2030 
(3) 2040
(4) 2050 

50. Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is  
(1) 50 MW
(2) 25 MW 
(3) 15 MW
(4) 10 MW 

51. Assertion (A) : Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.
 Reason (R) : Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.
 Choose the correct code :
 (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
 (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
 (3) (A) is true and (R) is false. 
(4) (A) is false and (R) is true. 

52. World Meteorological Organisation’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of deaths due to hydrometeorological disasters over the decade 2010-2019 by (with reference to the decade 1994-2003)
 (1) 25%
(2) 50% 
(3) 75%
(4) 80%

53. Which of the following core values among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and Accreditation Council) ?
 (a) Contributing to national development. 
(b) Fostering global competencies among the students. 
(c) Inculcating a value system among students and teachers. 
(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure. 
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
  Codes : 
(1) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) 
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

54. The best way for providing value education is through  
(1) discussions on scriptural texts
(2) lectures / discourses on values 
(3) seminars / symposia on values
(4) mentoring / reflective sessions on values 

55. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by 
(1) The Supreme Court of India 
(2) The High Court 
(3) The High Court and the Supreme Court both  
(4) The President of India 

56. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct ? 
(a) The President is both Head of the State and Head of the Government. 
(b) Parliament is Supreme.
 (c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justiciable. 
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
 (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (b), (c) and (d) 
(3) (b) and (c)
 (4) (c) only

 57. Which of the following are the fundamental duties ?
 (a) To respect the National Flag.
 (b) To protect and improve the natural environment. 
(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child. 
(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance. 
Select the correct answer from the codes given :
 Codes :
  (1) (a), (b) and (c)
 (2) (a), (b) and (d)
 (3) (a), (c) and (d)
 (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

58. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog ? 
(a) It is a constitutional body. 
(b) It is a statutory body. 
(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. 
(d) It is a think-tank. 
Select the correct answer from the codes given below : 
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (b) and (d) 
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)


59. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an intent to develop cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills of analysis and synthesis.
Below, given are two sets of items Set – I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and   
        Set – II comprising basic requirements for promoting them.
 Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative from the code :
     Set – I (Levels of Cognitive Interchange)     Set – II (Basic requirements for promoting cognitive interchange)
    a. Memory level             i. Giving opportunity for discriminating examples and non-examples of a point.
    b. Understanding level         ii. Recording the important points made during the presentations.
    c. Reflective level            iii. Asking the students to discuss various items of information. 
                    iv. Critically analyzing the points to be made and discussed. 
Codes :       a     b     c     
(1)     ii     iv     i 
(2)     iii     iv     ii 
(3)     ii     i     iv 
(4)     i     ii     iii

60. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing effective teaching-learning systems ? Select the correct alternative from the codes given below : 
(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.
(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends.
(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject. 
(iv) Student’s language background.
(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.
(vi) Motivational-orientation of the students. 
Codes : 
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

Friday, December 23, 2016

Happy new year and Merry Christmas messages

!""""!        !"""""!            
!     !        !      !
!     !        !      !   """HUM
!      """""""       !
!     !"""""""!      !
!     !        !      !
!     !        !      !
"""""          """""

      /""""""""""\
    /      / \      \
   ¡       """""       !
   ¡      !"""""!      ! """AAPKO
   ¡      ¡       !     !
   ¡      !      !      !
   """"""       """""''

  !"""""""""""""\
  !     !""""!      !
  !     !     !      !
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!""""""""""""""'\
¡      ¡""""!      !
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!     ! """"""""
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""""""

\""""'""\          /"""""/
  \        \      /      /
    \        \  /      /
      \               /
       ¡              ¡ """YAD
       !              ¡     KARTE
       ¡              ¡     HAI....
       """""""""""""'

   ¡""""""""'\         ¡"""""¡
   ¡            \       ¡      ¡
   ¡       ¡\     \    ¡       ¡
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   ¡"""""""""""""""""!
   ¡      !""""""""""""
   ¡      !    
   !      """"""""""""!       I
   ¡      !"""""""""""'   WISH
   ¡      !                 YOU
   ¡       """"""""""!     ALL
   """""""""""""""""'     THE
                           BEST....

   ¡""""""!         !""""""!
   ¡        !        !       !
   ¡        !/"" \!         !
   ¡                          !
   ¡          /  \           !
   ¡        /      \         !
   """""""          """"""""' 

\""""""\         /"""""'/    
   \       \     /       /
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      !                 !
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   """"""""""""""""""'

        /"""""""""\
      /      /\      \
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   !     """"""'"     /
   !      !""""''!     \
   !      !       !     ¡
   ¡       !      !     ¡
   """""""      """"""
  Happy new year
   in advance...😗from
😍😍 S -star😘😘

  /""""""""""""""""\
!     !""""""""!      !
"""""           !      !
  /"""""""""""      /
!     !""""""""""""
!     !             !""""!
\     """""""""""     /
  """""""""""""""""""

   /"""""""""'"""\
  ¡     !""""!      !
  ¡     !     !      !
  ¡     !     !      !
  ¡     !     !      !
  \     """""      /
    """""""""""""'

        /""""""""""'!
      /       /!     !
     """""""   !     !
                !     !
                !     !
                !     !
                """''''''

         /"""""""""""""\  
        !
          """"""""""/    !
                      !    !
                      !    !
            !"""'''''''''!    !'''''''''''!
             """""""!    !'''''''''''
                     !    !
                     !    !
                     ------ 

🎄HAPPY.....🎄 NEW 2017......🎄 in advance for you.....🎄
!     !
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MERRY CHRISTMAS TO EVERYONE

Naye aur taze hindi chutkule

लड़की मंदिर गयी•••और शादी के लिए प्रार्थना करने लगी!
तो शर्म आ गई ••
.
कहने लगी हे भगवान मैं अपने लिए नहीं मांगती ••••••बस मेरी
मम्मी को एक खूबसूरत दामाद दे दे!!!
.
.
प्रार्थना क़ुबूल हुई और उसके छोटी बहन की शादी हो गई •••
.
.
सीख•••••{ प्रार्थना में over acting से परहेज करें
😝 😝 😝

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छोटे लोग
और
छोटे नोट ही
मुसीबत में काम आते हे
व्यवहार सब से रखिऐ ....!!!!
😎
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मौलवी: "किसी को इस शादी से
ऐतराज़
है ??
.
.
एक आवाज़ आई "हां मुझे है"
.
मौलवी - यार तुम चुप रहो,
तुम दूल्हे हो,
तुम्हे तो जिंदगी भर ऐतराज़ रहेगा....😂😂😂😂
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शिक्षक  – 15 फलों के नाम बताओ …
छात्र – आम !
शिक्षक   – शाबाश !
छात्र – अमरुद …
शिक्षक   – गुड !
छात्र – सेब …
शिक्षक   – वैरी गुड ! तीन हो गए .. बाकी 12 और बताओ ?

छात्र – 1 दर्ज़न केले !!

😂😂😂😂😂😂😂😃😜
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लड़का : क्या तुम मुझसे प्यार करती हो?
लडकी : हाँ, मै तुम्हारे लिए कुछ भी कर सकती हू

लड़का : सच
लड़की : हाँ

लड़का : चल फिर 47 का पहाडा सुना फटाफट...😂😜😂😂😂😂😂😂😂😂😂😂😂😀😀
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एक बार पति पत्नी घूमने जा रहे थे
रास्ते मे गधा मिला
पत्नी को मजाक सूझी
पत्नी- आपके रिस्तेदार है- नमस्ते करो
पति भी बहुत कमीना था
बोला-
""ससुर जी नमस्ते""
😝😝😝😝😝😝😝😝😝😝😝
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बाबा रामदेव कहते है "अच्छी सेहत के लिये

सास पर कन्ट्रोल करो।"

अब बाबा को कौन समझाये कि लोगों से बीवी तो कन्ट्रोल

होती नहीं सास पर कन्ट्रोल कैसे करें
😜😜😳😝😝😍😳😜😜
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कुरुक्षेत्र : एक लड़का रोंमेटिक हो के अपनी गर्ल फ्रेंड से बोला

” मुझे तेरी आखो में सारा संसार दिखता है "

तीन लड़के मौटरसाइकल पर वहॉ से जा रहै थे

उनमै सै एक बोला……

“भाई ….!!!!!

भाभी की आँख मे दैख के बताइये
" मोहन नगर चौंक " पे पुलिस वाले चलान काट रहे है क्या ?

😁😜😁😉😂😂😂
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Wife शादी में फेरों के वक्त ,,
सुनो जी – आज से आपके बिना मैं नहीं,
और मेरे बिना आप नहीं ,,

1 साल बाद

रुक जा कमीने ,
या तो आज तू नहीं या मैं नहीं
😂😂😂
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एक बच्चा अपनी माँ से बुरी तरह से पीटने के बाद, अपने पापा से पूछा आप कभी पाकिस्तान गए हो ?
पापा : नहीं बेटा …..
बेटा: कभी अफगानिस्तान गए हो ?
पापा : नहीं बेटा.
बेटा : तो फिर यह आतंकवादी आइटम कहाँ से लाये ?? 😜😜😜😜😜
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छोटी चीज़े अक्सर डरा देती हैं...😰😰

आप पर्वत पर बैठ सकते हैं.

लेकिन.........

सुई पर नहीं...😖

न्यूटन का भाई  Uटन
😝😎😎😎😝
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एक चोर - चोरी कर के, घर से जा
रहा था
की ... बच्चे की आँख खुल गयी ...
.
.
और बच्चा बोला: .
.
.
स्कूल बॅग भी ले जा, वरना
शोर मचा दूँगा ..😝😝😝😝😂😂😂😜😜😜
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एक काला आदमी  मरने के बाद स्वर्ग गया।

परी : ...तुम कौन हो ?
काला आदमी  (परी को इम्प्रेस करने के लिए):
" मैं " TITANIC का हीरो हूं ,😎
`
`
परी : ...
TITANIC डूबा था ..
जला नही था साले काले तीतर
😜😜😜😜😜😜
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बीवी बच्चे न हों तो
आदमी का खर्च कितना कम हो जाता है,
राहुल जी कितने दिन पहले चार हजार लेकर गए थे,

दुबारा बैंक नहीं आये,,,,
और मोदी जी तो आए ही नहीं,,,,!
😜😜😂😂😂
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🍴🍽☕🍜🍲🍪🍴

*तोता राम* --- ये पुलाव कैसा बनाया है ?
इसमें से अजीब सी smell
आ रही है !

*बीबी* --- इतने खुल्ले पैसे नहीं थे कि लौंग , पुदीना और नमक ले आऊं,
इसलिये पतंजलि टूथ पेस्ट डाल दी , क्योंकि
इस टुथ पेस्ट में नमक , लौंग और पुदीना तीनों चीजें पड़ी हैं !

😜😜😜😛😜😜😜
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दारू पार्टी के बाद पति ने पत्नी को फोन
किया - "घर नही आ सकता गाड़ी का
स्टेयरिंग, ब्रेक, गेयर सब चोरी हो गया है "
-.-
-.-
-.-
-.-
-.-
-.-
एक घंटे बाद फिर फोन किया - "आ रहा हूँ
गल्ती से पिछली सीट पर बैठ गया था"

😜😜😄😂😜
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मजा तो तब आयेगा, जब मोदी जी बोल देगें की बस आज रात 12 बजे से
.
.
.
.
हमेशा के लिये चुनाव ही बंद अब कोई PM नहीँ बनेगा। जो है वही रहेगा ।
😂😂😂😂 !!
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😄
पत्नी गोलगप्पे खा रही थी।
20 -25 खा लिए होंगे ।
फिर उसने पति से पुछा -
"10 और खा लूँ ?"

पति बोला - "नागिन ! खा ले!"

पत्नी ने गुस्से में प्लेट फैक दिया !
"नागिन किसको बोला ?

पति :-"अरे मैंने कहा -
ना गिन, खा ले !
😃😝😝😝
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*पति* की पाँच Miss call हो तो *पत्नी* सोचती है
पता नही क्या हुआ होगा,,,!!!

*पत्नी* की पाँच Miss call हो तो *पति* सोचता है
पता नही आज मेरे साथ क्या होगा,!!!!
😀
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लड़की गिफ्ट की दूकान में
काफी देर गिफ्ट देखने के बाद
एक गिफ्ट की तरफ इशारा करते हुए पूछा

ये हँसती हुई चुड़ैल कितने की है

दुकानदार- मैडम जी ये आईना है 😝😂

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