June 2016 Computer Science Paper 2 :-
1. The Boolean function [~ (~p∧q)∧~(~p∧~q)]∨(p∧r) is equal to the Boolean function :
(1) q (2) p ∧ r
(3) p ∨ q (4) p
2. Let us assume that you construct ordered tree to represent the compound proposition (~ (p∧q)) ↔ (~ p ∨ ~ q).
Then, the prefix expression and post-fix expression determined using this ordered tree are
given as ____ and _____ respectively.
(1) ↔~∧pq∨ ~ ~ pq, pq∧~p~q~∨↔ (2) ↔~∧pq∨ ~ p~q, pq∧~p~q~∨↔
(3) ↔~∧pq∨ ~ ~ pq, pq∧~p~ ~q∨↔ (4) ↔~∧pq∨ ~ p~ q, pq∧~p~ ~q∨↔
3. Let A and B be sets in a finite universal set U. Given the following :
|A – B|, |A ⊕ B|, |A| + |B| and |A ∪ B|
Which of the following is in order of increasing size ?
(1) |A – B| < |A ⊕ B| < |A| + |B| < |A ∪ B|
(2) |A ⊕ B| < |A – B| < |A ∪ B| < |A| + |B|
(3) |A ⊕ B| < |A| + |B| < |A – B| < |A ∪ B|
(4) |A – B| < |A ⊕ B| < |A ∪ B| < |A| + |B|
4. What is the probability that a randomly selected bit string of length 10 is a palindrome ?
(1) 1 / 64
(2) 1 / 32
(3) 1 / 8
(4) 1 / 4
5. Which of the following is a sequential circuit ?
(1) Multiplexer
(2) Decoder
(3) Counter
(4) Full adder
6. The octal number 326.4 is equivalent to
(1) (214.2)10 and (D6.8)16 (2) (212.5)10 and (D6.8)16
(3) (214.5)10 and (D6.8)16 (4) (214.5)10 and (D6.4)16
7. Which of the following is the most efficient to perform arithmetic operations on the
numbers ?
(1) Sign-magnitude (2) 1’s complement
(3) 2’s complement (4) 9’s complement
8. 8085 microprocessor has _____ hardware interrupts.
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
9. Which of the following logic operations is performed by the following given combinational circuit ?
(1) EXCLUSIVE-OR (2) EXCLUSIVE-NOR (3) NAND (4) NOR
10. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Controlled Inverter i. a circuit that can add 3 bits
b. Full adder ii. a circuit that can add two binary numbers
c. Half adder iii. a circuit that transmits a binary word or its 1’s complement
d. Binary adder iv. a logic circuit that adds 2 bits
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii ii iv i
(2) ii iv i iii
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iii i iv ii
11. Given i= 0, j = 1, k = – 1
x = 0.5, y = 0.0
What is the output of given ‘C’ expression ?
x * 3 & & 3 || j | k
(1) –1 (2) 0
(3) 1 (4) 2
12. The following ‘C’ statement :
int * f[ ]( ) ;
declares :
(1) A function returning a pointer to an array of integers.
(2) Array of functions returning pointers to integers.
(3) A function returning an array of pointers to integers.
(4) An illegal statement.
13. If a function is friend of a class, which one of the following is wrong ?
(1) A function can only be declared a friend by a class itself.
(2) Friend functions are not members of a class, they are associated with it.
(3) Friend functions are members of a class.
(4) It can have access to all members of the class, even private ones.
14. In C++, polymorphism requires :
(1) Inheritance only
(2) Virtual functions only
(3) References only
(4) Inheritance, Virtual functions and references
15. A function template in C++ provides _____ level of generalization.
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
16. DBMS provides the facility of accessing data from a database through
(1) DDL (2) DML
(3) DBA (4) Schema
17. Relational database schema normalization is NOT for :
(1) reducing the number of joins required to satisfy a query.
(2) eliminating uncontrolled redundancy of data stored in the database.
(3) eliminating number of anomalies that could otherwise occur with inserts and deletes.
(4) ensuring that functional dependencies are enforced.
18. Consider the following statements regarding relational database model :
(a) NULL values can be used to opt a tuple out of enforcement of a foreign key.
(b) Suppose that table T has only one candidate key. If Q is in 3NF, then it is also in
BCNF.
(c) The difference between the project operator (Π) in relational algebra and the
SELECT keyword in SQL is that if the resulting table/set has more than one occurrences of the same tuple, then Π will return only one of them, while SQL
SELECT will return all.
One can determine that :
(1) (a) and (b) are true. (2) (a) and (c) are true.
(3) (b) and (c) are true. (4) (a), (b) and (c) are true.
19. Consider the following Entity-Relationship (E-R) diagram and three possible relationship
sets (I, II and III) for this E-R diagram :
I : P Q S T II : P Q S T III: P Q S T
p1 q1 s1 t1 p1 q1 s1 t1 p1 q1 s1 t1
p1 q1 s1 t2 p1 q1 s2 t2 p1 q2 s1 t1
If different symbols stand for different values (e.g., t1 is definitely not equal to t2), then
which of the above could not be the relationship set for the E-R diagram ?
(1) I only (2) I and II only
(3) II only (4) I, II and III
20. Consider a database table R with attributes A and B. Which of the following SQL queries
is illegal ?
(1) SELECT A FROM R;
(2) SELECT A, COUNT(*) FROM R;
(3) SELECT A, COUNT(*) FROM R GROUP BY A;
(4) SELECT A, B, COUNT(*) FROM R GROUP BY A, B;
21. Consider an implementation of unsorted single linked list. Suppose it has its
representation with a head and a tail pointer (i.e. pointers to the first and last nodes of the
linked list). Given the representation, which of the following operation can not be
implemented in O(1) time ?
(1) Insertion at the front of the linked list.
(2) Insertion at the end of the linked list.
(3) Deletion of the front node of the linked list.
(4) Deletion of the last node of the linked list.
22. Consider an undirected graph G where self-loops are not allowed. The vertex set of G is
{(i, j) | 1 < i < 12, 1 < j < 12}. There is an edge between (a, b) and (c, d) if |a – c| < 1 or
| b – d | < 1. The number of edges in this graph is
(1) 726 (2) 796
(3) 506 (4) 616
23. The runtime for traversing all the nodes of a binary search tree with n nodes and printing
them in an order is
(1) O(lg n) (2) O(n lg n)
(3) O(n) (4) O(n2)
24. Consider the following statements :
S1 : A queue can be implemented using two stacks.
S2 : A stack can be implemented using two queues.
Which of the following is correct ?
(1) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
(2) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.
(3) Both S1 and S2 are correct.
(4) Both S1 and S2 are not correct.
25. Given the following prefix expression :
* + 3 + 3 ↑ 3 + 3 3 3
What is the value of the prefix expression ?
(1) 2178 (2) 2199
(3) 2205 (4) 2232
26. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to microwaves ?
(1) Electromagnetic waves with frequencies from 300 GHz to 400 THz.
(2) Propagation is line-of-sight.
(3) Very high-frequency waves cannot penetrate walls.
(4) Use of certain portions of the band requires permission from authorities.
27. In a fast Ethernet cabling, 100 Base-TX uses ____ cable and maximum segment size is
_____.
(1) twisted pair, 100 metres (2) twisted pair, 200 metres
(3) fibre optics, 1000 metres (4) fibre optics, 2000 metres
28. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can pass only an average of 12,000 frames per
minute with each frame carrying an average of 10,000 bits. What is the throughput of this
network ?
(1) 1 Mbps (2) 2 Mbps
(3) 10 Mbps (4) 12 Mbps
29. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Session layer i. Virtual terminal software
b. Application layer ii. Semantics of the information transmitted
c. Presentation layer iii. Flow control
d. Transport layer iv. Manage dialogue control
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) i iv ii iii
(3) iv i iii ii
(4) iv ii i iii
30. Which of the following protocols is used by email server to maintain a central repository
that can be accessed from any machine ?
(1) POP3
(2) IMAP
(3) SMTP
(4) DMSP
31. The number of strings of length 4 that are generated by the regular expression (0+ 1+ | 2+ 3+)*, where | is an alternation character and {+, *} are quantification
characters,
is :
(1) 08 (2) 09
(3) 10 (4) 12
32. The content of the accumulator after the execution of the following 8085 assembly
language program, is
MVI A, 35H
MOV B, A
STC
CMC
RAR
XRA B
(1) 00H (2) 35H
(3) EFH (4) 2FH
33. In compiler optimization, operator strength reduction uses mathematical identities to
replace slow math operations with faster operations. Which of the following code
replacements is an illustration of operator strength reduction ?
(1) Replace P + P by 2 * P or Replace 3 + 4 by 7.
(2) Replace P * 32 by P < < 5
(3) Replace P * 0 by 0
(4) Replace (P < <4) – P by P * 15
34. Which of the following are the principles tasks of the linker ?
I. Resolve external references among separately compiled program units.
II. Translate assembly language to machine code.
III. Relocate code and data relative to the beginning of the program.
IV. Enforce access-control restrictions on system libraries.
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) II and III (4) I and IV
35. Which of the following is FALSE ?
(1) The grammar S→aS|aSbS|∈, where S is the only non-terminal symbol, and ∈ is the
null string, is ambiguous.
(2) An unambiguous grammar has same left most and right most derivation.
(3) An ambiguous grammar can never be LR(k) for any k.
(4) Recursive descent parser is a top-down parser.
36. Consider a system with seven processes A through G and six resources R through W.
Resource ownership is as follows :
process A holds R and wants T
process B holds nothing but wants T
process C holds nothing but wants S
process D holds U and wants S & T
process E holds T and wants V
process F holds W and wants S
process G holds V and wants U
Is the system deadlocked ? If yes, ______ processes are deadlocked.
(1) No (2) Yes, A, B, C
(3) Yes, D, E, G (4) Yes, A, B, F
37. Suppose that the virtual Address space has eight pages and physical memory with four
page frames. If LRU page replacement algorithm is used, _____ number of page faults
occur with the reference string.
0 2 1 3 5 4 6 3 7 4 7 3 3 5 5 3 1 1 1 7 2 3 4 1
(1) 11 (2) 12
(3) 10 (4) 9
38. Consider a system having ‘m’ resources of the same type. These resources are shared by three processes P1, P2 and P3 which have peak demands of 2, 5 and 7 resources
respectively. For what value of ‘m’ deadlock will not occur ?
(1) 70 (2) 14
(3) 13 (4) 7
39. Five jobs A, B, C, D and E are waiting in Ready Queue. Their expected runtimes are 9, 6,
3, 5 and x respectively. All jobs entered in Ready queue at time zero. They must run in
_____ order to minimize average response time if 3 < x < 5.
(1) B, A, D, E, C (2) C, E, D, B, A
(3) E, D, C, B, A (4) C, B, A, E, D
40. Consider three CPU intensive processes P1, P2, P3 which require 20, 10 and 30 units of
time, arrive at times 1, 3 and 7 respectively. Suppose operating system is implementing
Shortest Remaining Time first (preemptive scheduling) algorithm, then _____ context
switches are required (suppose context switch at the beginning of Ready queue and at the
end of Ready queue are not counted).
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5
41. Which of the following is used to determine the specificity of requirements ?
(1) n1 n2
(2) n2 n1
(3) n1 + n2
(4) n1 – n2
Where n1 is the number of requirements for which all reviewers have identical interpretations, n2 is number of requirements in a specification.
42. The major shortcoming of waterfall model is
(1) the difficulty in accommodating changes after requirement analysis.
(2) the difficult in accommodating changes after feasibility analysis.
(3) the system testing.
(4) the maintenance of system.
43. The quick design of a software that is visible to end users leads to _____.
(1) iterative model
(2) prototype model
(3) spiral model
(4) waterfall model
44. For a program of k variables, boundary value analysis yields ______ test cases.
(1) 4k – 1 (2) 4k
(3) 4k + 1 (4) 2k – 1
45. The extent to which a software performs its intended functions without failures, is termed
as
(1) Robustness
(2) Correctness
(3) Reliability
(4) Accuracy
46. An attacker sits between the sender and receiver and captures the information and
retransmits to the receiver after some time without altering the information. This attack is
called as _____.
(1) Denial of service attack
(2) Masquarade attack
(3) Simple attack
(4) Complex attack
47. _______ is subject oriented, integrated, time variant, nonvolatile collection of data in
support of management decisions.
(1) Data mining
(2) Web mining
(3) Data warehouse
(4) Database Management System
48. In Data mining, classification rules are extracted from _______.
(1) Data (2) Information
(3) Decision Tree (4) Database
49. Discovery of cross sales opportunities is called as _____.
(1) Association
(2) Visualization
(3) Correlation
(4) Segmentation
50. In Data mining, ______ is a method of incremental conceptual clustering.
(1) STRING
(2) COBWEB
(3) CORBA
(4) OLAD
1. The Boolean function [~ (~p∧q)∧~(~p∧~q)]∨(p∧r) is equal to the Boolean function :
(1) q (2) p ∧ r
(3) p ∨ q (4) p
2. Let us assume that you construct ordered tree to represent the compound proposition (~ (p∧q)) ↔ (~ p ∨ ~ q).
Then, the prefix expression and post-fix expression determined using this ordered tree are
given as ____ and _____ respectively.
(1) ↔~∧pq∨ ~ ~ pq, pq∧~p~q~∨↔ (2) ↔~∧pq∨ ~ p~q, pq∧~p~q~∨↔
(3) ↔~∧pq∨ ~ ~ pq, pq∧~p~ ~q∨↔ (4) ↔~∧pq∨ ~ p~ q, pq∧~p~ ~q∨↔
3. Let A and B be sets in a finite universal set U. Given the following :
|A – B|, |A ⊕ B|, |A| + |B| and |A ∪ B|
Which of the following is in order of increasing size ?
(1) |A – B| < |A ⊕ B| < |A| + |B| < |A ∪ B|
(2) |A ⊕ B| < |A – B| < |A ∪ B| < |A| + |B|
(3) |A ⊕ B| < |A| + |B| < |A – B| < |A ∪ B|
(4) |A – B| < |A ⊕ B| < |A ∪ B| < |A| + |B|
4. What is the probability that a randomly selected bit string of length 10 is a palindrome ?
(1) 1 / 64
(2) 1 / 32
(3) 1 / 8
(4) 1 / 4
5. Which of the following is a sequential circuit ?
(1) Multiplexer
(2) Decoder
(3) Counter
(4) Full adder
6. The octal number 326.4 is equivalent to
(1) (214.2)10 and (D6.8)16 (2) (212.5)10 and (D6.8)16
(3) (214.5)10 and (D6.8)16 (4) (214.5)10 and (D6.4)16
7. Which of the following is the most efficient to perform arithmetic operations on the
numbers ?
(1) Sign-magnitude (2) 1’s complement
(3) 2’s complement (4) 9’s complement
8. 8085 microprocessor has _____ hardware interrupts.
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
9. Which of the following logic operations is performed by the following given combinational circuit ?
(1) EXCLUSIVE-OR (2) EXCLUSIVE-NOR (3) NAND (4) NOR
10. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Controlled Inverter i. a circuit that can add 3 bits
b. Full adder ii. a circuit that can add two binary numbers
c. Half adder iii. a circuit that transmits a binary word or its 1’s complement
d. Binary adder iv. a logic circuit that adds 2 bits
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iii ii iv i
(2) ii iv i iii
(3) iii iv i ii
(4) iii i iv ii
11. Given i= 0, j = 1, k = – 1
x = 0.5, y = 0.0
What is the output of given ‘C’ expression ?
x * 3 & & 3 || j | k
(1) –1 (2) 0
(3) 1 (4) 2
12. The following ‘C’ statement :
int * f[ ]( ) ;
declares :
(1) A function returning a pointer to an array of integers.
(2) Array of functions returning pointers to integers.
(3) A function returning an array of pointers to integers.
(4) An illegal statement.
13. If a function is friend of a class, which one of the following is wrong ?
(1) A function can only be declared a friend by a class itself.
(2) Friend functions are not members of a class, they are associated with it.
(3) Friend functions are members of a class.
(4) It can have access to all members of the class, even private ones.
14. In C++, polymorphism requires :
(1) Inheritance only
(2) Virtual functions only
(3) References only
(4) Inheritance, Virtual functions and references
15. A function template in C++ provides _____ level of generalization.
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
16. DBMS provides the facility of accessing data from a database through
(1) DDL (2) DML
(3) DBA (4) Schema
17. Relational database schema normalization is NOT for :
(1) reducing the number of joins required to satisfy a query.
(2) eliminating uncontrolled redundancy of data stored in the database.
(3) eliminating number of anomalies that could otherwise occur with inserts and deletes.
(4) ensuring that functional dependencies are enforced.
18. Consider the following statements regarding relational database model :
(a) NULL values can be used to opt a tuple out of enforcement of a foreign key.
(b) Suppose that table T has only one candidate key. If Q is in 3NF, then it is also in
BCNF.
(c) The difference between the project operator (Π) in relational algebra and the
SELECT keyword in SQL is that if the resulting table/set has more than one occurrences of the same tuple, then Π will return only one of them, while SQL
SELECT will return all.
One can determine that :
(1) (a) and (b) are true. (2) (a) and (c) are true.
(3) (b) and (c) are true. (4) (a), (b) and (c) are true.
19. Consider the following Entity-Relationship (E-R) diagram and three possible relationship
sets (I, II and III) for this E-R diagram :
I : P Q S T II : P Q S T III: P Q S T
p1 q1 s1 t1 p1 q1 s1 t1 p1 q1 s1 t1
p1 q1 s1 t2 p1 q1 s2 t2 p1 q2 s1 t1
If different symbols stand for different values (e.g., t1 is definitely not equal to t2), then
which of the above could not be the relationship set for the E-R diagram ?
(1) I only (2) I and II only
(3) II only (4) I, II and III
20. Consider a database table R with attributes A and B. Which of the following SQL queries
is illegal ?
(1) SELECT A FROM R;
(2) SELECT A, COUNT(*) FROM R;
(3) SELECT A, COUNT(*) FROM R GROUP BY A;
(4) SELECT A, B, COUNT(*) FROM R GROUP BY A, B;
21. Consider an implementation of unsorted single linked list. Suppose it has its
representation with a head and a tail pointer (i.e. pointers to the first and last nodes of the
linked list). Given the representation, which of the following operation can not be
implemented in O(1) time ?
(1) Insertion at the front of the linked list.
(2) Insertion at the end of the linked list.
(3) Deletion of the front node of the linked list.
(4) Deletion of the last node of the linked list.
22. Consider an undirected graph G where self-loops are not allowed. The vertex set of G is
{(i, j) | 1 < i < 12, 1 < j < 12}. There is an edge between (a, b) and (c, d) if |a – c| < 1 or
| b – d | < 1. The number of edges in this graph is
(1) 726 (2) 796
(3) 506 (4) 616
23. The runtime for traversing all the nodes of a binary search tree with n nodes and printing
them in an order is
(1) O(lg n) (2) O(n lg n)
(3) O(n) (4) O(n2)
24. Consider the following statements :
S1 : A queue can be implemented using two stacks.
S2 : A stack can be implemented using two queues.
Which of the following is correct ?
(1) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
(2) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.
(3) Both S1 and S2 are correct.
(4) Both S1 and S2 are not correct.
25. Given the following prefix expression :
* + 3 + 3 ↑ 3 + 3 3 3
What is the value of the prefix expression ?
(1) 2178 (2) 2199
(3) 2205 (4) 2232
26. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to microwaves ?
(1) Electromagnetic waves with frequencies from 300 GHz to 400 THz.
(2) Propagation is line-of-sight.
(3) Very high-frequency waves cannot penetrate walls.
(4) Use of certain portions of the band requires permission from authorities.
27. In a fast Ethernet cabling, 100 Base-TX uses ____ cable and maximum segment size is
_____.
(1) twisted pair, 100 metres (2) twisted pair, 200 metres
(3) fibre optics, 1000 metres (4) fibre optics, 2000 metres
28. A network with bandwidth of 10 Mbps can pass only an average of 12,000 frames per
minute with each frame carrying an average of 10,000 bits. What is the throughput of this
network ?
(1) 1 Mbps (2) 2 Mbps
(3) 10 Mbps (4) 12 Mbps
29. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Session layer i. Virtual terminal software
b. Application layer ii. Semantics of the information transmitted
c. Presentation layer iii. Flow control
d. Transport layer iv. Manage dialogue control
Codes :
a b c d
(1) iv i ii iii
(2) i iv ii iii
(3) iv i iii ii
(4) iv ii i iii
30. Which of the following protocols is used by email server to maintain a central repository
that can be accessed from any machine ?
(1) POP3
(2) IMAP
(3) SMTP
(4) DMSP
31. The number of strings of length 4 that are generated by the regular expression (0+ 1+ | 2+ 3+)*, where | is an alternation character and {+, *} are quantification
characters,
is :
(1) 08 (2) 09
(3) 10 (4) 12
32. The content of the accumulator after the execution of the following 8085 assembly
language program, is
MVI A, 35H
MOV B, A
STC
CMC
RAR
XRA B
(1) 00H (2) 35H
(3) EFH (4) 2FH
33. In compiler optimization, operator strength reduction uses mathematical identities to
replace slow math operations with faster operations. Which of the following code
replacements is an illustration of operator strength reduction ?
(1) Replace P + P by 2 * P or Replace 3 + 4 by 7.
(2) Replace P * 32 by P < < 5
(3) Replace P * 0 by 0
(4) Replace (P < <4) – P by P * 15
34. Which of the following are the principles tasks of the linker ?
I. Resolve external references among separately compiled program units.
II. Translate assembly language to machine code.
III. Relocate code and data relative to the beginning of the program.
IV. Enforce access-control restrictions on system libraries.
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) II and III (4) I and IV
35. Which of the following is FALSE ?
(1) The grammar S→aS|aSbS|∈, where S is the only non-terminal symbol, and ∈ is the
null string, is ambiguous.
(2) An unambiguous grammar has same left most and right most derivation.
(3) An ambiguous grammar can never be LR(k) for any k.
(4) Recursive descent parser is a top-down parser.
36. Consider a system with seven processes A through G and six resources R through W.
Resource ownership is as follows :
process A holds R and wants T
process B holds nothing but wants T
process C holds nothing but wants S
process D holds U and wants S & T
process E holds T and wants V
process F holds W and wants S
process G holds V and wants U
Is the system deadlocked ? If yes, ______ processes are deadlocked.
(1) No (2) Yes, A, B, C
(3) Yes, D, E, G (4) Yes, A, B, F
37. Suppose that the virtual Address space has eight pages and physical memory with four
page frames. If LRU page replacement algorithm is used, _____ number of page faults
occur with the reference string.
0 2 1 3 5 4 6 3 7 4 7 3 3 5 5 3 1 1 1 7 2 3 4 1
(1) 11 (2) 12
(3) 10 (4) 9
38. Consider a system having ‘m’ resources of the same type. These resources are shared by three processes P1, P2 and P3 which have peak demands of 2, 5 and 7 resources
respectively. For what value of ‘m’ deadlock will not occur ?
(1) 70 (2) 14
(3) 13 (4) 7
39. Five jobs A, B, C, D and E are waiting in Ready Queue. Their expected runtimes are 9, 6,
3, 5 and x respectively. All jobs entered in Ready queue at time zero. They must run in
_____ order to minimize average response time if 3 < x < 5.
(1) B, A, D, E, C (2) C, E, D, B, A
(3) E, D, C, B, A (4) C, B, A, E, D
40. Consider three CPU intensive processes P1, P2, P3 which require 20, 10 and 30 units of
time, arrive at times 1, 3 and 7 respectively. Suppose operating system is implementing
Shortest Remaining Time first (preemptive scheduling) algorithm, then _____ context
switches are required (suppose context switch at the beginning of Ready queue and at the
end of Ready queue are not counted).
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5
41. Which of the following is used to determine the specificity of requirements ?
(1) n1 n2
(2) n2 n1
(3) n1 + n2
(4) n1 – n2
Where n1 is the number of requirements for which all reviewers have identical interpretations, n2 is number of requirements in a specification.
42. The major shortcoming of waterfall model is
(1) the difficulty in accommodating changes after requirement analysis.
(2) the difficult in accommodating changes after feasibility analysis.
(3) the system testing.
(4) the maintenance of system.
43. The quick design of a software that is visible to end users leads to _____.
(1) iterative model
(2) prototype model
(3) spiral model
(4) waterfall model
44. For a program of k variables, boundary value analysis yields ______ test cases.
(1) 4k – 1 (2) 4k
(3) 4k + 1 (4) 2k – 1
45. The extent to which a software performs its intended functions without failures, is termed
as
(1) Robustness
(2) Correctness
(3) Reliability
(4) Accuracy
46. An attacker sits between the sender and receiver and captures the information and
retransmits to the receiver after some time without altering the information. This attack is
called as _____.
(1) Denial of service attack
(2) Masquarade attack
(3) Simple attack
(4) Complex attack
47. _______ is subject oriented, integrated, time variant, nonvolatile collection of data in
support of management decisions.
(1) Data mining
(2) Web mining
(3) Data warehouse
(4) Database Management System
48. In Data mining, classification rules are extracted from _______.
(1) Data (2) Information
(3) Decision Tree (4) Database
49. Discovery of cross sales opportunities is called as _____.
(1) Association
(2) Visualization
(3) Correlation
(4) Segmentation
50. In Data mining, ______ is a method of incremental conceptual clustering.
(1) STRING
(2) COBWEB
(3) CORBA
(4) OLAD
