Friday, January 27, 2017

Fuels

Fuels

 Introduction
    Fuels are naturally occurring or manufactured combustible organic substances which act as a source of heat or as raw materials for the chemical industry. Industries require power for their routine operations. Heat energy is the main source of power. Therefore, those materials used for production of heat energy are termed as fuels. Nature has furnished or given us unlimited source of energy of different forms.

What is a fuel?
    A fuel can be defined in different ways as follows----
(1) Any source of heat energy is called as fuel.
(2) Any substance which by oxidation, is made a source of heat for practical
purposes is called as fuel.
(3) Any combustible substance which may be burnt to supply heat that can
be used economically for domestic and industrial purposes.
    Raw coal is directly used for domestic heating and as source of
other products obtained by processes of dry distillation which may be
conveniently called carbonization. During carbonization process, there is
always decrease of the amount of gaseous and volatile matter when the fuel is being heated.

Modern concept of fuels : It is now well established fact that ,it is not necessary for a fuel
to undergo combustion or oxidation .
For example, electrical energy when used as a source of heat is also called fuel.
Nuclear energy may also be used as a source of heat.

According to the modern definition, a fuel is any fissionable
material which produces energy in a form that can be used for
producing power.

Classification of fuels:
On the basis of physical states, fuels can be classified into three groups:
a) Solid state
b) Liquid fuels and
c) Gaseous fuels.
These are further sub-classified according to their origin as natural or artificial.
The clarification is summarized in below table
<table border="2">
<tr>
<td>State</td>
<td> Natural Fuels</td>
<td>Artificial Fuels</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>1. Solid Fuels</td>
<td>Coal,wood,shale,peat,liginite</td>
<td>Charcoal, wood, coke, petroleum coke,<br> Briquettes.</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>2. Liquid Fuels</td>
<td>Natural gasoline,crude petroleum</td>
<td>Petrol, Kerosene, diesel oil, ligroline oil, <br>coal tar, alcohol, gas-oil.</td>
</tr>
<tr>
<td>3. Gaseous Fuels</td>
<td>Natural gas (Marsh gas),</td>
<td>Producer gas, water gas, coke over gas ,<br> coal gas, oil gas ,Blast furnace gas,<br> acetylene, hydrogen,<br>Liquid Petroleum Gas (LPG)</td>
</tr>

It seem from the table that , whatever may be the origin of the fuel ( natural or synthetic) - both contain all the three phase states viz, solid
liquid and gaseous.
Artificial or synthetic fuel is prepared by processing natural fuel by
different ways. for example , natural fuels like coal , wood , shale , peat ,
petroleum natural gas etc . are known as primary fuels , where as coke ,
charcoal , petrol , kerosene , coal tar , producer gas , coke - oven gas , compressed
butane etc . are called secondary fuels . Secondary fuels are therefore , produced by
processing primary fuels .
 
Properties of a Good Fuel
    A good fuel should possess following properties.
1. High Calorific Value:
    The calorific value of a fuel is the amount of heat produced by the
complete combustion of a unit weight or volume of the fuel . The fuel with
high calorific value is more useful.
a.In case of solid and liquid fuels that the calorific value is usually expressed in
BTU per pound or calories per gram.
1 calorie per gram = 1.8 BTU per pound.

b. In case of gaseous fuels the calorific value is expressed in BTU per cubic
feet at 60 % F and 30 inch pressure of Hg.
1 kcal / m  = 0.1077 * BTU / Ft.
1BTU / Ft = 9.3 kcals / m.

2. Moderate Ignition Temperature :
The temperature at which a solid, liquid or gaseous fuel catches fire and continues to burn without further heat  is called ignition temperature.
It is also called as ignition point .The value of ignition temperature decreases due to presence of moisture and foreign material.
i. If the ignition temperature of the fuel is low it is easy to start fire but it is dangerous for storage and transport.
ii. If the ignition temperature of the fuel is high it is difficult to start fire but it is easy for storage and transport.
Therefore, an ideal fuel should have moderate ignition temperature.

3. Moderate velocity of combustion:
The temperature attained by combustion in case of a particular fuel
depends upon its velocity of combustion , its calorific value and the space
used for combustion . It the velocity of combustion is very low , then the
liberated may get radiated instead of raising the temperature . Secondary the
velocity of combustion should not be very high .

4.Low % of Non - combustible matter :
After combustion of fuel , the non - combustion matter like ash or
clinker remains behind which also reduces the heating value of the fuel . A
good fuel can have high calorific value , only if it has low % of non -
combustion matter (ash).

5.Products of composition :
The gaseous products of combustion of fuel should not pollute the
atmosphere and should not be harmful or poisons for human lives. Gases like
carbon monoxide , sulphur-dioxide , hydrogen sulphide , phosphine etc . are
some of the harmful gases.

6.Ease of transport :
The good fuel is easy to handle , store and transport. Solid and liquid
fuel can be transported very easily from one place to another .On the other
hand transportation of gaseous fuels is costly and can fire hazards.

7.Low cost :
A fuel should be readily available in bulk at low cost . The cost of
production , storage and transport should be low.

Criterion of Selection of  Fuel
    Following factors are of primate importance while selecting a fuel for
a particular purpose.
i. The fuel must have reasonably high velocity of combustion.
ii. It should have high calorific value.
iii. It must have proper ignition temperature.
iv. It must have low % of non combustion matter .
v. It must have low cost.
vi. It must be available in sufficient quantity.
vii. It must be easy for transport.
Calorific Value of Fuels.

Different fuels produce different amount of heat on burning. The
usefulness of a fuel is measured in terms of its calorific value . The calorific
value of fuel may be defined as :
i. The amount of heat liberated in calories by the complete combustion of
a combustion substance with oxygen and the condensation of the
products to the desired temperature , OR
ii. The amount of heat liberated by burning unit weight or unit volume of
the fuel.
    Let us consider the combustion of carbon and hydrogen .

C  +   O2   -------      CO2     +    97 .644
12g     32g                44g. 
H2  +  O   -------       H2O
2g        16g                 18g.
It is evident from the above equations that 12 g of carbon give
 97. 644 calories of heat , therefore 1 g of carbon would give 97644 / 12 =
8137 cals of heat , similarly 2g of hydrogen give 69 .000 calories of heat ,
when steam is condered to water .
Units for Calorific Value :
i.BTU .
    For solid fuels the calorific value is expressed in BTU per pound or
in KCU per kilogram . One BTU in the hear required to raise the temperature of
one pound of water from 60 % F to 61 % F .
ii. Calorie :
    A calorific which is the unit of heat , may be defined as , the heat
required to raise the temperature of one kilogram of water from 15% C to
16% C.

1 BTU = 252 cals = 0.252 kcals .
1 kcal = 3.968 BTU .
1 kcal/kg =1.8 BTU/1b .and = 0.1077 * BTU/ft3.

iii. KCU:
One KCU is the amount of heat required to heat one kilogram of
water from 15 % C to 16 % C.
    The mean calorific value of any fuel . containing carbon and
hydrogen can be calculated as follows :

Total calories = (% carbon * 8137 ) + ( % Hydrogen * 34500 )
                          --------------------------------------------------------
                                                           100
iv.KJ/g :
The calorific value of a fuel  is usually expressed as kilojoules per
gram . For example the calorific value of charcoal is 33 kilojoules per
gram. It is a common unit of measuring calorific values in kilojoules per gram.
The calorific values of some common fuels are given in table 6 . 2.

Problem:
i.    Calculate the calorific value of carbon from given reaction
            C + O2 ---- CO2 + 387 kJ
: 12 g of carbon produces heat = 387 kJ
: 1 g of carbon produces heat = 387 / 12 = 32 . 25 kJ
In case of gaseous fuels calorific values are calculated from the sum
of the calorific values of the constituent gases. In case of fuel containing
heat is also deducted for moisture present in the fuel.

Determination of Calorific Values of a Fuel

Calorific value of a solid or liquid fuel can be determined by
burning a definite amount of fuel in a Bomb calorimeter . In such a
under constant pressure .                                                                                           
                   @
Thus ,    C9H6O      +       10 O2 --------------       9 CO2       +      3 H2O
           Anthracitic coal

Procedure:
a. Take a known mass of the fuel whose calorific value is to be determined.
b.Take a known mass of water in a beaker and then burn the fuel.
c.The fuel in burning will produce heat , that will be absorbed by water
taken in beaker.
d.The temperature of water starts rising.
e.The rise in temperature is noted when all the fuel is burnt. It is
found out from temperature of water..
f.Thus , knowing the mass of water taken in a beaker , specific
formula ,
    Heat produced Q = m * S * t  Joules .
    -------------------------------------------

where , m = mass of water
              S = specific heat of water
              t = rise in  temperature of water .
          This quantity heat has been produced by burning ' X '
grams of fuel.
    We can find out the calorific value of the fuel in joules per gram by
dividing heat Q by the mass water  ' X ' grams  of the fuel burnt.

: Calorific Value = Amount of heat produced   
               --------------------------------------------
                             Mass of fuel burnt.
                        = Q /X Joules per gram.
                        = Q   kJ/ gram.
                        -----------
                         X * 1000.    
Example :A beaker containing 400 grams of water at 25 % C heated by
burning 2 . 5 grams of charcoal. The final temperature of water become 55 % C .
Solution :
i. Mass of water = 400 g .
ii.Specific heat of water =4 .2 J/g% C.
iii.Intial temperature of water = 25 % C.
iv. Final temperature of water = 55 % C.
v. Rise in temperature of water (t) = 55 - 25 = 30 % C.

Formula :
Heat absorbed by water ( Q ) = m * S * t Joules
                    = 400 * 4. 2 * 30 
                    = 50400 Joules
                     = 50 kJoules.
    This amount of heat ( Q ) absorbed by water has been produced by
burning 2 . 5 grams of charcoal fuel.
: Calorific value of the fuel = Amount of heat produced
                     --------------------------------
                       Mass of  fuel burnt
                 = Q / X
                 = 50 / 2 .5
                   = 20 . 16 kJoules gram.
    Hence calorific value of the fuel is 20 . 16 .
    The calorific value of gaseous fuels can be determined by burning a
definite volume of the fuel completely at atmospheric pressure in a chamber
surrounded by coils through which water is allowed to flow at constant pressure .

Other properties of fuel .

(1) Ignition Temperature : It is defined as , the temperature at which a fuel
catches fire and continues to burn without further heat . Each fuel has definite
ignition temperature value . The ignition temperature is influence by a
number of factors such as -- i. Nature of fuel ii .combustion environment
iii.presence of moisture iv. Size and shape of the experimental value vi.
particle size and presence of foreign material etc .
    The value of ignition temperature decrease due to the presence of
moisture and foreign material .

( 2 ) Flash point : It is the property of a liquid fuel like gasoline , kerosene ,
petrol , alcohol etc . It is defined as , the minimum temperature at which a
sample of a fuel oil gives off enough vapour that catches fire but does not
continue to burn in presence of air by naked flame or electric discharge .

( 3 ) Fire point :It is defined as , 'the temperature at which the oil vapours will
catch fire and continue to burn ' . Both flash point and fire point are used to
detect dissolved impurities much more volatile than the bulk of the oil .

( 4 )Coke number : It is defined as , ' the amount of carbon deposited by a
weighed sample of oil in a standard apparatus under a set of
experimental conditions . ' Better grade lubricating oils have lower coke
number .

( 5 ) Viscosity :This is the properly of lubricating oils . It is expressed in ,
centipose . In USA . Saybolt Universal Viscosity ( SUV ) is generally
employed in petroleum industry . It is expressed as ' the number of seconds
required for 60 c.c. of the oil to run through a standard orifice from a cylinder
filled to a defined level at a standard temperature . '

Solid Fuels .
Solid fuels contain combustible organic materials and an
incombustible or minerals part known as ballast. There are two types of solid fuels .

Among the solid fuels wood , coal and charcoal are commonly used .
The heat of combustion of a fuel depends upon the composition of the fuel
and on its moisture content .

Coal :
    Coal is the most important natural solid fuel . It is combustible solid
fuel , usually formed by the burial of partically decomposed vegetation in post
geological ages . After that pressure and temperature converted them to coal .

The calorific values and uses of some of the solid fuels are
summarized in table 6 . 3 .

Chemically , coal is highly complex organic matter with varying
amount of water , trapped as well as combined , together with nitrogen
and sulphur in the form of organic and inorganic matter . Sulphur is
an important imputy which affects  the quality of a fuel . The contents of
impurties in coal make different grades of coal e .g .
a.Anthracite
b.Bituminonus coals -low volatile type fixed carbon , medium
volatile type and high volatile type.
c.Sub -bituminous coal or black lignite.
d.Pulverized coal .

Destructive Distillation of coal .
    During destructive distillation, coal is thermally pyrolyed or
distilled by heating in the absence of air . During this process coal is
converted into variety of solid , liquid and gaseous products . The quality as
well as the amount of each product depends upon the temperature used in the
pyrolysis and the variety of coal .
    When soft coal and other kinds of solid fuels are heated under
different in various conditions , they  undergo complicated changes and lead
to the formation if new solid , liquid or gaseous products .
    The method of high temperature processing of solid fuels can be
divided in to three main types -- a. Pyrolysis b. Gasification
c.Hydrogenation .

a.Pyrolysis : In this process the heating of the fuel in a closed reactors is
carried out in the absence of air , the low temperature pyrolysis , called semi-
coking is carried out at 500 - 580 % C , The temperature pyrolysis , called
coking is carried out at 900 -1050 % C .

b.Gasification :In the process the transformation of the organic part of
solid fuel into combustible gases is carried out by incomplete oxidation with
air ,steam or their mixture in gasifies at a temperature of about 1000 % C .

c.Hydrogenation :In this process the treatment of the fuel with hydrogen
is carried out at high temperature and pressures of catalyst.

The process of carbonisation .
    The bituminous coal on low heating losses moisture and gases that
are driven out . At about 270 % C , some H2S and olefine gases are evolved. At
about 350 % C active decomposition of the coal substance takes place with
increases and below 800 % C , gas is the main product.
    The quality of the coke produced mainly depend on -- i. the type
of coal used ii. the temperature of carbonisation and iii. the rate of cardonisation.
These factors control the porosity , rectivity end the amount of volatile matter
retained in the coke .

(A) Low temperature carbonisation .
    The low temperature carbonisation is carried out mainly for
the manufacture of domestic fuel. The coke produced is called low
 temperature coke and contains about 5 to 15 % volatile matter.
This coke is easily ignited and it is a valuable , smokeless , domestic
coal and process used for carconisation.

Disadvantages :
i.It produces heavy air pollution.
ii.By this process , poor quality of the soft coke is produced.
iii.There is loss of liquid and gaseous by products .

(B) High temperature carbonization
The high temperature carbonization is used for the
production of pure , strong , hard and porous metallurgical coke. The yield  of
the coke is 65 to 75 % and contain 1 to 3 % volatile matter. Its calorific value
is about 5000 - 6000 k. cals'/m3 which is lower than that produced in LTC.

Chemicals from coal
    Chemicals from coal were initially and mostly obtained by
destructive distillation of coal , furnishing mainly the aromatic compounds
such as -- benzene , toluene , xylene , napthalence and methyl - naphthalenes.
When coal is thermally pyrolysed or distilled by heating in the absence of air ,
and amount of each product depends on the temperature used in pyrolysis and
CO2 , CO , H2S , NH3 , N2 . The products other than coke are known as coal

Coking of Coal
    Coking is used mainly for processing of fuels such as coals . In
coking , coals are heated in the absence of air to a temperature to form 
volatile products and solid reminder known as coke .

Chamber ovens.
i.It consists of narrow rectangular chambers made of silica bricks . These
chambers are tightly closed so that no air is admitted.
ii. The heating is carried out by burning gases like producer gas , blast
furnace gas or coke oven gas .
iii.The chambers are also fitted with charging doors having 3 and 4 openings
at the top and discharging doors at the bases .
iv.Each oven is separated from the neighboring one by a vertical flue in
which the fuel gas burns and the ovens get heated from both sides.
v.The hot gases leaving the fuels are allowed to pass through the chequer
brick - work in the next oven . The air and fuel gas pass through other
chamber which been already heated .
vi.When coal is heated in the coke oven  , moisture is first expelled and at
about 300 - 450 % C  the coal takes place .
vii.As about 500 % - 500 % C the coal passes through a plastic state and it is
and solidification to form semi coke.
viii..As about 500 % - 500 % C the coal passes through a plastic state and it is
and solidification to form semi coke.
ix.The process of carbonisation takes place in the coal charge starting from
the two side walls of the oven .
x.Each oven holds about 20 tonnes of coal charge and the time required
for carbonisation is about 12 to 20 hours .
xi.The final temperature goes around 1100 % C and the yield of coke is
about 70 % .
xii.After carbonisation the red hot coke is pushed into a coke car where the
coke comes in contact with spray of cooling water .
xiii.The excess water is evaporated and the coke is screened to different
sizes.
xiv.The gases from the coke ovens are converted into different hyproducts .

Byproducts of coal .
    The gaseous mixture that leaves the coke ovens contains ammonia ,
sulphur , volatile hydrocarbons , tar etc . The important byproducts
like light oil , tar ammonium sulphate , finely divided sulphur , ammonium

SET Exam 2015 computer science solve question paper

1.L , M  ,N ,P and Q appeared for a test.
M, scored better than P  , but scored
less than L and N , L scored better
than N , P scored  better than Q.
Which of the following is correct
descending order based on their
performance ?
(A) LNMPQ.
(B) NLMPQ.
(C) QPMNL.
(D) PQMLN.

2.Based on the following statements ,
which of the conclusion/s is / are
correct ?
statement I : Some leaders are intelligent.
statement II: All the managers are intelligent.
Conclusion 1 : All the leaders are intelligent.
Conclusion 2: Some managers are intelligent.
(A) Only 1.
(B) Only 2 .
(C) Both 1 and  2.
(D) Both 1 and 2 do not follow.

3.Based on the following statements.
Which of the conclusion/s will follow ?
Statement I : All tigers are brave.
statement II : Some brave animals are kind.
Conclusion 1: Some tigers are kind.
Conclusion 2: Tom is a tiger , so he is brave.
(A) Only 1.
(B) Only 2.
(C) Both 1 and 2.
(D) Neither 1 nor 2.

4.Mohini , Nanda , Seema , Anisha and
Sangeeta are paricipating in a race.
At the end of the race , Seema was
ahead of Nanda but behind Anisha.
Mohini was behind of all . Sangeeta
was ahead of Seema. Who must be
the first three in order of finishing
the race ?
(A) Mohini , Sangeeta , Seema.
(B) Ssngeeta , Seema , Anisha.
(C) Anisha , Sangeeta , Seema.
(D) Seema , Sangeeta , Anisha.

5.Which of the alternatives will
complete the following letter series ?
HIG , LMK  ,------------,TUS , XYW .
(A) PQO.
(B) OPQ.
(C) NOP.
(D) MNL.

6.Which of  the following represents
the correct relationship among
Fruits , Mangoes , Alphanso ?
(A) .
(B) .
(C) .
(D) .
  
Use the following table to answer question Nos. 7 to 10 :

The following table shown the
distribution of candidates who
appeared for MBA entrance
examination and candidates who
passed the examination in seven
different institutes.

7.What is the ratio of passed
candidates to the candidates who
appeared for the examination for
institute A ?
(A) 9 : 11.
(B) 14 : 17.
(C) 6 : 11.
(D) 9 : 17.

8.What is the percentage of passed
candidates among the candidates
who appeared in institutes B and C
together ?
(A) 68 %.
(B) 80 %.
(C) 74 %.
(D) 65 %.

9.Which institue has the highest
percentage of candidates passed to
the candidates appeared ?
(A) B.
(B) C.
(C) F.
(D) E.

10.The number of candidates passed
from institudes A and D together
exceeds the number of institudes C and E
together by:
(A) 228.
(B) 279.
(C) 399.
(D) 407.

Use the following table to
answer question No.11 and 12 :

Proportion of population of seven
villages in 1997 :

11.Find the population of village Q if                       
the population of village M below
poverty line in 1997 is 12160.
(A) 18500.
(B) 20500.
(C) 22000.
(D) 26000.

12.If the population of village P in 1997
is 32000 , then what will be the
population of village N below
poverty line in that year ?
(A) 14100.
(B) 15600.
(C) 16500.
(D) 17000

13.Which of the following is the correct
chronology of communication technologies?
(A) Still Photography , Computer ,
Radio Internet.
(B) Ratio , still Photography  ,
Computer , Internet.
(C)still , Photography  , Radio ,
Computer , Interent.
(D) Radio , Computer , Still
Photography , Interent.

14.On the basis of structure and
function identify the odd out from
the following :

facebook , G - mail , MySpace , Orkut ,
Linkedin :
(A) Linkedin.
(B) G- mail.
(C) MySpace.
(D) Facebook.

15.In the context of internet what is
the full form of  URL ?
(A) User Requested Link.
(B) Ultimate Requested Location.
(C) Unique Request Locator.
(D) Universal Resoure Locator.

16.Which of the following softwares is
used to process and analyse
quantitative data ?
(A) Quark Express.
(B) SPSS.
(C) Quant Chrome.
(D) SSQN.

17.In the context of computer based
word processing a typeset / fontset
particularly used for Indian
languagaes including Hindi and
Marathi which can be easily used
of converter is called as :
(A) Unitype.
(B) Indifont.
(C) Unicode.
(D) Uitiform.

18.In the context of computing and
internet , identify the correct pair
from the following :
(A) TB - Memory Storage Unit
(B) Playstore - Operating system
(C) Pixel - Colour enhancing
facility
(D) USB - Antivirus

19.Which one of the following is an
example of in situ conservation of
biological resources ?
(A) Botanical Garden
(B) Zoo
(C) Breeding Centers
(D) National Parks

20.In which states in Western Ghat is
spread and known for its rich
biodiversity ?
(A) Maharashtra- Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat - Madhya Pradesh
(C) Karnataka - Telangana
(D) Maharashtra - Karnataka-
Kerala

21.The solidwaste from hospital is
classified as :
(A) Hazardous
(B) Non - hazardous
(C) Compostable
(D) Combustible

22.Which of the following pairs of air
pollutant causes acid rain ?
(A) Sulphur dioxide - Carbon dioxide
(B) Oxides of nitrogen - Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide - Oxides of nitrogen
(D) Ammonia - Chlorine

23.Which of the following is a
herbivorous animal ?
(A) Snake
(B) Frog
(C) Deer
(D) Fox

24.Large number of people have
serious apprehensions about -----------
energy
(A) Fossil fuel
(B) Nuclear
(C) Hydro- electricity
(D) Solar

25.Which one of the following agencies
regulates Higher Education ?
(A) MHRD
(B) NCTE
(C) UGC
(D) NCERT

26.Which one of the following is
responsible for professional
development of teacher's in the
Higher Education ?
(A) SCERT - SITE
(B) NUERT - RIE
(C) UGC - ASC
(D) UGC - DEB

27.When was the first Open University
established in the world ?
(A) 1969
(B) 1971
(C) 1980
(D) 1857

28.Which commission mentioned that
"If we exclude spiritual training in
our institution , we would be untrue
to our whole historical development ?
(A) Radhakishman Commission
(B) Kothari Commission
(C) Dave Commission
(D) Mudaliar Commission

29." INFLIBNET " is :
(A) Research Portal
(B) Learning Resource
(C) Education Nekwork
(D) Information Library Nekwork

30.Which one of the following mission
is related to Higher Education ?
(A) SSA
(B) RUSA
(C) RMSA
(D) EFA

31.When chossing a teaching method ,
which  of the following is considered
to be the least important ?
(A) Nature of the content being
taught
(B) Available resources
(C) Course objectives
(D) Students' likes and dislikes

32.The best feedback about mis-
learning is obained through :
(A) diagnostic testing
(B) summative evaluation
(C) objective -  based testing
(D) qualitative evaluation

33.The question , " Distinguish between
animal cell and plant cell " based
on --------------- objective.
(A) Comprehension
(B) Analysis
(C) Synthesis
(D) Evaluation

34.Students who can effectively express
their thoughts show --------------------------
intelligence.
(A) Emotional
(B) Linguistic
(C) Inter - personal
(D) Cognitive

35.The factors which most affect the
quality of teaching are :
(A) learner 's abilities teacher ' s
communication skills , teaching
method.
(B) teaching method , teacher 's
commication skills , teacher 's
training.
(C) teacher 's salary , teacher 's
personality , teacher 's , training
(D) classroom environment , use of
audio - visual aids , learners'
intelligence

36.The most important purpose of home
assignment is to :
(A) keep students well engaged
(B) instill habit of hard work in the
students
(C) provide feedback to the teacher
regarding students' learning
(D) help in better retention of
content

37.Doing research involves these
steps : ( 1 ) stating research objectives
and hypothesis ; ( 2 ) Methodology ;
( 3 ) Identification of research
problem ; ( 4 ) Collection and analysis
of data
( 5 ) Statements of results and
discussion .
(A) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - 5
(B) 4 - 1 - 3  - 2 - 5
(C) 3 - 1 - 2 - 4 - 5
(D) 2 - 1 - 5 - 3 - 4

38.The bibliography of a research
report :
(A) lists all the books published on
the topic
(B) lends credibility to the report
and research as a guide for further
research
(C) includes summaries of
reference listed in it .
(D) is always written in the format
prescribed by the American
Psychological  Association

39.No hypothesis can be stated in -----
terms
(A) directional
(B) declarative
(C) null and interrogative
(D) general

40.The F - test :
(A) is basically one - sided
(B) is basically two - sided
(C) can be either , depending on the
hypothesis
(D) can never be two - sided

41.Experimental research can be :
(A) easily generalized
(B) easily analyzed
(C) easily planned
(D) precisely controlled

42.The quality of a research journal is
indicated by its -----------.
(A) h -index
(B) g - index
(C) i/o score
(D) impact factor

Answer question Nos. 43 to 48
based on either the Engish
passage or the Marathi passage :

Parents have to develop the habit
of thinking in term of ' we ', not
'me'. Think about the whole family.
Some cnventional , orthodox men
feel they are the heads of the
families. So it's their right to get
all the advantages , privileges etc .
Similary some modern women
think that ' Gone are the days. Now
we are working and earning by
shoulder to shoulder to men . Hence
the women should get the equal or
sometimes even more advantages
and privileges ' . Both such types of
parents do not have ' we ' - feeling.
Family - oriented men and women
would think  of the whole family as
a unit , the advantages as well as
troubles of each and every
individual member in the family.
Thus in any interpersonal
relationship - between spouses ,
between parents and childern , and
between children - the thinking
should be of 'win - win ' type . The
habit - formation should start from
parents. Naturally the childern will
receive and absorb the same method
of behaving .

When we listen with the intent to
understand others , we begin true
communication and relationship
building . Generally parents go on
ordering , dictaating , coering the
child wirhout listening to him / her.
Hence there is no two - way
commication between parents
and childern . One - way ordering and
the other -way obeying or
disobeyign is generally observed in
the society . Even in parent - child
relationship it 's better if parents
first listen to childern , observe their
expressions , behaviour . Hence they
try to understand thte child . Now
it 's likely that their reaction would
be in line with the child 's ability
and expectation . In fact , parents
have to remember that Success
definitely deserves a hug ,  but
Faliure needs an even tighter
embrace.

43.Some conventional men think that :
(A) they must take all the decisions
in the family.
(B) women should get equal
advantages and privilages.
(C) they must have all the
conveniences and advantages
in the family.
(D) everyone in the family must
obey them.

44.Thinking in terms of  ' we ' means
thinking about :
(A) the family
(B) the nation
(C) both men and women
(D) the society

45.Which of the following statements
is true ?
(A) Orthodox men have ' we ' -feeling.
(B) children learn methods of
behaviour from their parents.
(C) Parents and children must have
a friendly relationship.
(D) The habit formation in the
family should start from grand-
parents.

46.True commication and
relationship building begin with :
(A) ordering and dictating.
(B) ordering and obeying.
(C) expecting and speaking.
(D) listening and understanding.

47.If parents try to understand the
child , their reactions will be in
consonance with the child 's :
(A) behaviour
(B) achievements
(C) abilities
(D) ambitions

48.The most appropriate title for the
passage is :
(A) The parent - child relationship
and the family
(B) The compulusions of family life.
(C) True relationship building.
(D) Success and failure in the
family.

49.Which  of the following is not an
example of non - verbal communication ?
(A) Letter Writing
(B) Facial Expession
(C) Pace of Speaking
(D) Silence

50.On which criteria communication
can be classified into ' Intra -
personal' , Inter - personal ' , ' group '
and ' mass ' communication ?
(A) Medium of communication.
(B) Number of participants in
communication.
(C) Message of communication.
(D) Purpose of communication.

51.Which of the following is the most
correct description of ' breaking news'
in the context of news - channel ?
(A) A news mainly about a shocking
or violent event
(B) A news mainly based on
pictures taken by hidden
camera.
(C) A short and developing news
about an important event just
discovered.
(D) A precise news focusing on
investingation of political
corruption.

52.What is the significance of the 1980s
in the context of television in India  ?
(A) Television transmission began in India.
(B) DTH services for television began in India.
(C) Rapid expansion of  Doordarshan 's network.
(D) Privately owned TV channels were allowed in India.

53.The round  table sitting arrangement
in a typical conference room
facilitates :
(A)  one - directional communication.
(B) more interactive communication
amongst participants.
(C) top - down communication.
(D) bottoms - up communication.

54.What communicative dimensions are
added when PowerPoint Presentation
is used in teaching  ?

(A) Only visual
(B) Only Audio
(C) Audio as well as visual
(D) Audio , Visual and  Interactive

55. Consider the following code words
for the fruits.
Banana -- 010 , Apple -- 111 ,
Mango -- 101 . By the nearest
decoding procedure the codeword
000 will be decoded to :

(A) Banana
(B) Apple
(C) Mango
(D) Either Apple or Mango

56.


57.Suppose x1 = 10 , x2 = x1 +1 / 10 , ------ ,
x+1 =x+ 1 /10k . Then which  of the
following is not true  ?

(A) No two  term of the sequence are equal.
(B) At least oone term of the sequence is larger
than 10.1112 .
(C) The sequence is strictly increasing.
(D) Every term of the sequence is less than 11.11.

58.Assume that human being will
survive on the earth for infinity.
Then :

(A) There is a person whose family
line will never terminate.
(B) Everyones family line may get terminated.
(C) At least 50 % of the present person 's family line will not be terminated.
(D) At most 50 % of the present person's line will not be terminated.

59.Three boys (b1 ,b2 ,b3 ) and three
girls (g1 ,g2 , g3 ) are registered in a
marriage bureau . Suppose each boy
wishes to marry a girl of his choice .
In which of the following situations
will each boy get married to a girl
of his choice .

(A) b1 likes g1 , b2 likes and b3 likes g2 .
(B) b1 likes , b2 likes g3 and b3 likes g1.
(C) b1 likes g2 , b2 likes and b3 likes g3.
(D) b1 likes g1 , b2 likes and b3 likes g1.

60.Suppose that in an oranganization
every teacher is a scientist ; every
scientist who is not a teacher is an
engineer . Therefore :

(A) every engineer is a scientist .
(B) every teacher is an engineer.
(C) every scientist is either a
teacher or an engineer .
(D) no teacher is an engineer .

Time table of T20 वर्ल्ड कप 2017 world cup

T20 वर्ल्ड कप 2017
---------------------
15 मार्च - भारत/न्यूजीलैण्ड
16 मार्च - वेस्टइंड़ीज/इंग्लैण्ड
16 मार्च - पकिस्तान/आयरलैंड
17 मार्च - श्रीलंका/ज़िम्बाब्वे
18 मार्च - ऑस्ट्रेलिया/न्यूजीलेंड
18 मार्च - द.अफ्रिका/इंग्लैंड
19 मार्च - हिन्दुस्तान/पाकिस्तान
20 मार्च - द.अफ्रिका/ज़िम्बाब्वे
20 मार्च - श्रीलंका/वेस्टइंडीज
21 मार्च - ऑस्ट्रेलिया/आयरलैंड
22 मार्च - न्यूजीलैंड/पकिस्तान
23 मार्च - इंग्लैंड/जिम्बाब्वे
23 मार्च - भारत/आयरलैंड
25 मार्च - पाकिस्तान/ऑस्ट्रेलिया
25 मार्च - द.अफ़्रीका/वेस्टइंडीज
26 मार्च - न्यूजीलेंड/आयरलैंड
26 मार्च - इंग्लैंड/श्रीलंका
27 मार्च - भारत/ऑस्ट्रेलिया
27 मार्च - वेस्टइंडीज/जिम्बाब्वे
28 मार्च - द.अफ्रीका/श्रीलंका
30 मार्च - पहला सेमीफाइनल
31 मार्च - दूसरा सेमीफाइलन
3 अप्रैल - T20 फाइनल
.
फटाफट क्रिकेट वर्ल्ड कप का लुफ्त लीजिये। टाइम टेबल आप के मोबाइल में सबसे पहले मेरी तरफ से।
इन date के हिसाब से प्लान करना मित्रो।।

Friday, January 13, 2017

प्राचीन स्वास्थ्य दोहावली Good health tips by old remedies


Good health tips by old remedies:

*"प्राचीन स्वास्थ्य दोहावली"*

पानी में गुड डालिए, बीत जाए जब रात!
सुबह छानकर पीजिए, अच्छे हों हालात!!

*धनिया की पत्ती मसल, बूंद नैन में डार!*
दुखती अँखियां ठीक हों, पल लागे दो-चार!!

*ऊर्जा मिलती है बहुत, पिएं गुनगुना नीर!*
कब्ज खतम हो पेट की, मिट जाए हर पीर!!

*प्रातः काल पानी पिएं, घूंट-घूंट कर आप!*
बस दो-तीन गिलास है, हर औषधि का बाप!!

*ठंडा पानी पियो मत, करता क्रूर प्रहार!*
करे हाजमे का सदा, ये तो बंटाढार!!

*भोजन करें धरती पर, अल्थी पल्थी मार!*
चबा-चबा कर खाइए, वैद्य न झांकें द्वार!!

*प्रातः काल फल रस लो, दुपहर लस्सी-छांस!*
सदा रात में दूध पी, सभी रोग का नाश!!

*प्रातः- दोपहर लीजिये, जब नियमित आहार!*                                                  तीस मिनट की नींद लो, रोग न आवें द्वार!!

*भोजन करके रात में, घूमें कदम हजार!*
डाक्टर, ओझा, वैद्य का , लुट जाए व्यापार !!

*घूट-घूट पानी पियो, रह तनाव से दूर!*
एसिडिटी, या मोटापा, होवें चकनाचूर!!

*अर्थराइज या हार्निया, अपेंडिक्स का त्रास!*
पानी पीजै बैठकर,  कभी न आवें पास!!

*रक्तचाप बढने लगे, तब मत सोचो भाय!*
सौगंध राम की खाइ के, तुरत छोड दो चाय!!

*सुबह खाइये कुवंर-सा, दुपहर यथा नरेश!*
भोजन लीजै रात में, जैसे रंक सुरेश!!

*देर रात तक जागना, रोगों का जंजाल!*
अपच,आंख के रोग सँग, तन भी रहे निढाल^^

*दर्द, घाव, फोडा, चुभन, सूजन, चोट पिराइ!*
बीस मिनट चुंबक धरौ, पिरवा जाइ हेराइ!!

*सत्तर रोगों कोे करे, चूना हमसे दूर!*
दूर करे ये बाझपन, सुस्ती अपच हुजूर!!

*भोजन करके जोहिए, केवल घंटा डेढ!*
पानी इसके बाद पी, ये औषधि का पेड!!

*अलसी, तिल, नारियल, घी सरसों का तेल!*
यही खाइए नहीं तो, हार्ट समझिए फेल!

*पहला स्थान सेंधा नमक, पहाड़ी नमक सु जान!*
श्वेत नमक है सागरी, ये है जहर समान!!

*अल्यूमिन के पात्र का, करता है जो उपयोग!*
आमंत्रित करता सदा, वह अडतालीस रोग!!

*फल या मीठा खाइके, तुरत न पीजै नीर!*
ये सब छोटी आंत में, बनते विषधर तीर!!

*चोकर खाने से सदा, बढती तन की शक्ति!*
गेहूँ मोटा पीसिए, दिल में बढे विरक्ति!!

*रोज मुलहठी चूसिए, कफ बाहर आ जाय!*
बने सुरीला कंठ भी, सबको लगत सुहाय!!

*भोजन करके खाइए, सौंफ,  गुड, अजवान!*
पत्थर भी पच जायगा, जानै सकल जहान!!

*लौकी का रस पीजिए, चोकर युक्त पिसान!*
तुलसी, गुड, सेंधा नमक, हृदय रोग निदान!

*चैत्र माह में नीम की, पत्ती हर दिन खावे !*
ज्वर, डेंगू या मलेरिया, बारह मील भगावे !!

*सौ वर्षों तक वह जिए, लेते नाक से सांस!*
अल्पकाल जीवें, करें, मुंह से श्वासोच्छ्वास!!

*सितम, गर्म जल से कभी, करिये मत स्नान!*
घट जाता है आत्मबल, नैनन को नुकसान!!

*हृदय रोग से आपको, बचना है श्रीमान!*
सुरा, चाय या कोल्ड्रिंक, का मत करिए पान!!

*अगर नहावें गरम जल, तन-मन हो कमजोर!*
नयन ज्योति कमजोर हो, शक्ति घटे चहुंओर!!

*तुलसी का पत्ता करें, यदि हरदम उपयोग!*
मिट जाते हर उम्र में,तन में सारे रोग। 🌸

*कृपया इस जानकारी को जरूर आगे बढ़ाएं*

Monday, January 9, 2017

Palindrome triangle


    Write a program in C to print print palindrome triangle pattern of n rows.


    How to print a right triangle of palindrome strings using for loops.

 

Palindrome triangle pattern of 5 rows:

A
ABA
ABCBA
ABCDCBA
ABCDEDCBA

Required Knowledge

    For Loop
    If Else Statement
    printf and scanf function in C


 Algorithm to print triangle pattern of palindrome strings
This program is similar to right triangle star pattern program.

    Take the number of rows(N) of right triangle as input from user using scanf function.
    Number of characters in Kth row is always 2K-1. 1st row contains 1 character, 2nd row contains 3 characters, 3rd row contains 5 characters and so on.
    In any row, we will first print the characters in increasing order of their ASCII value till mid of the row and then in decreasing order.
    We will use two for loops to print right triangle of palindrome strings.
        Outer for loop will iterate N time. Each iteration of outer loop will print one row of the pattern.
        Each iteration of inner loop will print a palindrome string as explained above.

C program to print palindrome triangle pattern

#include<stdio.h>

int main() {
   int i, j, rows, count=0;
  
   printf("Enter the number of rows\n");
   scanf("%d", &rows);
   
   for (i = 1; i <= 2*rows; i=i+2)
    {
      for (j = 1; j <= i; j++)
        {
               printf("%c", 'A'+count);
               if(j <= i/2)
                       count++;
                else 
                       count--;
              }
           count = 0;
          printf("\n");
       }
   return(0);
}

Output

Enter the number of rows
5
A
ABA
ABCBA
ABCDCBA
ABCDEDCBA

Keyboard shortcuts of computer

Interesting keyboard shortcuts for Various Applications You May Not know About Computer and The Internet.😊


More than 100 keyboard shortcuts keyboard shortcuts (Microsoft Windows).
👇
1.CTRL + C ( copy )
2.CTRL + X ( Cut )
3.CTRL + V (Paste)
4.CTRL + Z (Undo)
5.DELETE (Delete)
6.SHIFT + DELETE (delete the selected item permanently without placing the item in the Recycle Bin ).
7.CTRL while dragging an item ( Copy the selected item ).
8.CTRL+ SHIFT while dragging an item (Create a shortcut to the selected item )
9.F2 Key (Rename the selected item .
10.CTRL + RIGHT ARROW (Move the insertion point to the beginning of the next word )
11.CTRL + LEFT ARROW (Move the insertion point to the beginning of the previous word )
12.CTRL +DOWN ARROW (Move the insertion point to the beginning of the next paragraph )
13.CTRL + UP  ARROW (Move the insertion point to the beginning of the previous paragraph )
14.CTRL + SHIFT with any of the arrow keys (Highlight a block of text ) CTRL with any of the arrow keys. ( Select more than one item in a window or on the desktop , or Select text in a document
15.CTRL + A (Search + all )
16.F3 key ( Search for a file or a folder )
17.ALT + ENTER ( View the properties for the selected  object )
18.ALT + F4 (close the active item , or quit the active program ).
19.ACT + ENTER (Display the properties the selected object ).
20.ACT + SPACE Bar
21.CTRL + F4  (Close the active document programs that enable you to have multiple documents open simltenously )
22.ACT + TAB ( Switch between the open item )
23.ACT + ESC ( cycle through item in the order that  they load had ben opened.)
24.F6 key ( Cycle through the screen elements in a window or on the destkop )
25.F4 key (Display the Address bar list in My Computer or Windows Explorer)
26.SHIFT +F10 (Display the shortcut menu for the active window)
27.ALT+SPACEBAR (Display the System menu for the active window)
28.CTRL +ESC (Display the start menu)
29.ACT  + Underlined letter in a menu name (Display the corresponding menu )
Underlined letter in a command name on an open menu (Perform the corresponding command)
30.F10 key ( Activate the menu bar in the active program)
31.RIGHT ARROW
32.LEFT ARROW
33.F5 key
34.BACKSPACE
35.ESC (cancel the current task)
36.SHIFT when you insert a CD- ROM into the CD-ROM drive (Prevent the CD-ROM from automatically playing)

Dialog Box - Keyboard Shortcuts
1. CTRL +TAB (Move forward through the tabs)
2. CTRL + SHIFT +TAB (Move backward  through the tabs)
3. TAB (Move forward through the options)
4. SHIFT + TAB ( Move backward through the options)
5. ALT + Underlined letter (Perform the corresponding command or select the corresponding option )
6. ENTER (Perform the command for the active option or button )
7. SPACE-BAR (Select or clear the check box if the active option is check-box)
8. Arrow keys (select  a button if the active option is a group of option button )
9. F1 key (Display Help )
10. F4 key (Display the items in the active list)
11. BACKSPACE ( Open a folder one level up if a folder is selected in the Save As Open dialog box)

Microsoft Natural Keyboard Shortcuts
1. Windows Logo (Display or hide the Start menu)
2. Windows Logo + BREAK (Display the System Properties dialog box)
3. Windows Logo + D (Display the desktop )
4. Windows Logo + M (Minimize all the window)
5. Windows Logo + SHIFT  + M  (Restore the minimized window)
6. Windows Logo + E (Open My computer)
7. Windows Logo + F (Search for a file or a folder )
8. CTRL + Windows Logo + F (Search for computers)
9. Windows Logo  + F1 ( Display Window Help )
10. Windows Logo + L (lock the keyboard)
11. Windows Logo + R (Open the Run dialog box)
12. Windows Logo + U (Open the Utility Manager)

Accessibility Keyboard Shortcuts
1. Right Shift for eight seconds ( Switch Filter Keys either ON or OFF )
2. Left ALT + left SHIFT + PRINT SCREEN ( Switch high Contrast either ON or OFF )
3. Left ALT + left SHIFT + NUM LOCK (Switch the Mouse keys either ON or OFF)
4. SHIFT five times  (Switch the Sticky-keys either ON or OFF)
5.  NUM LOCK for five seconds ( Switch the Toggle-keys either ON or OFF)
6. Windows logo +U (Open Utility Manager )

 Windows explorer Keyboard Shortcuts
1.END ( Display the bottom of the active window)
2. HOME (Display the top of the active window)
3. NUM LOCK + Asterisk sign (*) ( display all of the sub-folders that are under the selected folder)
4. NUM LOCK + PLUS sign (+) (Display the contents of the selected folder)

MNC Console keyboard shortcuts

1. SHIFT + F10 ( Display the Action shortcut menu for the selected item )
2. F1 key ( Open the Help topic , if any , for the selected item )
3. F5 key ( Update the content of all console windows)
4. CTRL +F10 ( Maximize the active console windows)
5. CTRL + F5 ( Restore the active console windows)
6. ALT + ENTER ( Display the Properties dialog box, if any, for the selected item)
7. F2 key ( Rename the selected item )
8. CTRL +F4 ( Close the active console window . When a console has only console window , this shortcut close the console)

Remote Desktop Connection Navigation
1. CTRL + ALT +END ( Open the Micosoft Wiindow NT Security dialog box )
2. ALT + PAGE UP ( Switch between from left to right)
3. ALT + PAGE DOWN ( Switch between program from right to left)
4. ALT + INSERT ( Cycle through the programs in most recently used order)
5. ALT + HOME ( Display the START menu)
6. CTRL +ALT +BREAK (Switch the client computer between a window and a full screen)
7. ALT + DELETE ( Display the Windows menu )
8. CTRL + ALT + Minus sign (-) ( Place a snapshot of the active window in the client on the Terminal server clipboard and provide
the same functionality as pressing  PRINT SCREEN on a local computer.)
9. CTRL + ALT + Plus sign (+) ( Place a snapshot of the entire client window area on the Terminal server clipboard and provide
the same functionality as pressing  ALT+PRINT SCREEN on a local computer.)

Microsoft Internet Explorer Keyboard Shortcuts
1. CTRL + B (Open the Organize Favorites dialog box)
2. CTRL + E ( Open the Search  bar)
3. CTRL + F ( Star the Find Utility)
4. CTRL + H ( Open the History bar)
5. CTRL + I ( Open the Favorites bar)
6. CTRL + L ( Open the Open dialog box)
7. CTRL + N (Start another instance of the browser with the same Web address)
8. CTRL + O ( Open the Open dialog box, the same as CTRL + L)
9. CTRL + P ( Open the Print dialog box )
10. CTRL + R ( Update the current Web Page)
11. CTRL + W ( Close the current window)

Tuesday, January 3, 2017

Computer Science Paper 3 NET Exam question paper June 2016

Paper-III   J-87-16

COMPUTER SCIENCE & APPLICATIONS
PAPER – III 
1. A ripple counter is a (n) :
 (1) Synchronous Counter (2) Asynchronous counter
 (3) Parallel counter (4) None of the above  

2. 8085 microprocessor has ____ bit ALU.
 (1) 32 (2) 16
 (3) 8 (4) 4 

3. The register that stores the bits required to mask the interrupts is ______.
 (1) Status register (2) Interrupt service register 
 (3) Interrupt mask register (4) Interrupt request register  

4. Which of the following in 8085 microprocessor performs 
 HL = HL + HL ?
 (1) DAD D (2) DAD H
 (3) DAD B (4) DAD SP 

5. In ______ addressing mode, the operands are stored in the memory. The address of the corresponding memory location is given in a register which is specified in the instruction.
 (1) Register direct (2) Register indirect
 (3) Base indexed (4) Displacement 

6. The output of the following combinational circuit  
 is :
 (1) X . Y (2) X + Y
 (3) X ⊕ Y (4) X ⊕ Y  

7. Which of the following statements is/are True regarding some advantages that an object-
oriented DBMS (OODBMS) offers over a relational database ?
 I. An OODBMS avoids the “impedance mismatch” problem. 
 II. An OODBMS avoids the “phantom” problem.
 III. An OODBMS provides higher performance concurrency control than most
relational databases. 
 IV. An OODBMS provides faster access to individual data objects once they have been
read from disk.
 (1) II and III only (2) I and IV only
 (3) I, II, and III only (4) I, III and IV only 

8. The Global conceptual Schema in a distributed database contains information about global
relations. The condition that all the data of the global relation must be mapped into the
fragments, that is, it must not happen that a data item which belongs to a global relation
does not belong to any fragment, is called :
 (1) Disjointness condition  
 (2) Completeness condition 
 (3) Reconstruction condition  
 (4) Aggregation condition 

9. Suppose database table T1(P, R) currently has tuples {(10, 5), (15, 8), (25, 6)} and table T2 (A, C) currently has {(10, 6), (25, 3), (10, 5)}. Consider the following three relational algebra queries RA1, RA2 and RA3 :
 RA1 : T1  T1.P = T2.A T2 where   is natural join symbol
 RA2 : T1    T1.P = T2.A T2 where     is left outer join symbol
 RA3 : T1  T1.P = T2.A and T1.R = T2.C T2 
 The number of tuples in the resulting table of RA1, RA2 and RA3 are given by :
 (1) 2, 4, 2 respectively (2) 2, 3, 2 respectively
 (3) 3, 3, 1 respectively (4) 3, 4, 1 respectively  

10. Consider the table R with attributes A, B and C. The functional dependencies that hold on R are : A → B, C → AB. Which of the following statements is/are True ?
 I. The decomposition of R into R1(C, A) and R2(A, B) is lossless.
 II. The decomposition of R into R1(A, B) and R2(B, C) is lossy.
 (1) Only I (2) Only II
 (3) Both I and II (4) Neither I nor II 

11. Consider the following ORACLE relations :
 One (x, y) = {<2, 5>, <1, 6>, <1, 6>, <1, 6>, <4, 8>, <4, 8>}
 Two (x, y) = {<2, 55>, <1, 1>, <4, 4>, <1, 6>, <4, 8>, <4, 8>, <9, 9>, <1, 6>}
 Consider the following two SQL queries SQ1 and SQ2 :
 SQ1 :  SELECT * FROM One)
          EXCEPT
  (SELECT * FROM Two);
 SQ2 :  SELECT * FROM One)
        EXCEPT ALL
  (SELECT * FROM Two);
 For each of the SQL queries, what is the cardinality (number of rows) of the result obtained when applied to the instances above ?
 (1) 2 and 1 respectively (2) 1 and 2 respectively
 (3) 2 and 2 respectively (4) 1 and 1 respectively

12. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched in the context of database  design ?
List – I (Database term) List – II (Definition)
I. Specialization     A. Result of taking the union of two or more disjoint (lower-level) entity sets to produce a higher-level entity set.
II. Generalization     B. Express the number of entities to which another entity can be associated via a relationship set.
III. Aggregation     C. Result of taking a subset of a higher-level entity set to form a lower-level entity set.
IV. Mapping cardinalitiesD. An abstraction in which relationship sets (along with their associated entity sets) are treated as higher-level entity sets, and can participate in relationships. 
Codes :
  I II III IV
 (1) D A B C
 (2) D C B A
 (3) C D A B
 (4) C A D B 

13. Consider a raster grid having XY-axes in positive X-direction and positive upward
Y-direction with Xmax = 10, Xmin = –5, Ymax = 11, and Ymin = 6. What is the address of memory pixel with location (5, 4) in raster grid assuming base address 1 (one) ?
 (1) 150 (2) 151
 (3) 160 (4) 161 

14. Consider a N-bit plane frame buffer with W-bit wide lookup table with W > N. How many intensity levels are available at a time ?
 (1) 2N (2) 2W
 (3) 2N+W (4) 2N–1 

15. Consider the Breshenham’s line generation algorithm for a line with gradient greater than one, current point (xi, yi) and decision parameter, di. The next point to be plotted          (xi+1, yi+1) and updated decision parameter, di+1, for di < 0 are given as _______.
 (1) xi+1 = xi+1
  yi+1 = yi 
  di+1 = di + 2 dy 
 (2) xi+1 = xi 
  yi+1 = yi + 1
  di+1 = di + 2 dx
 (3) xi+1 = xi 
  yi+1 = yi + 1
  di+1 = di + 2 (dx – dy)
 (4) xi+1 = xi + 1
  yi+1 = yi + 1
  di+1 = di + 2 (dy – dx) 

16. A point P(2, 5) is rotated about a pivot point (1, 2) by 60°. What is the new transformed point P' ?
 (1) (1, 4) (2) (–1, 4)
 (3) (1, – 4) (4) (– 4, 1) 

17. In perspective projection (from 3D to 2D), objects behind the centre of projection are projected upside down and backward onto the view-plane. This is known as _____.
 (1) Topological distortion  
 (2) Vanishing point 
 (3) View confusion  
 (4) Perspective foreshortening  

18. The Liang-Barsky line clipping algorithm uses the parametric equation of a line from            (x1, y1) to (x2, y2) along with its infinite extension which is given as :  x = x1 + ∆x.u  y = y1 + ∆y.u  Where ∆x = x2 – x1, ∆y = y2 – y1, and u is the parameter with 0 <  u < 1. A line AB with end points A(–1, 7) and B(11, 1) is to be clipped against a rectangular window with              xmin = 1, xmax = 9, ymin = 2, and ymax = 8. The lower and upper bound values of the parameter u for the clipped line using Liang-Barsky algorithm is given as :
 (1) (0, 2 3 ) (2)   
  1 6 , 5 6
 
 (3) (0, 1 3 ) (4) (0, 1) 

19. Match the following with reference to Functional programming history :
a. Lambda calculus i. Church, 1932
b. Lambda calculus as programming language 
ii. Wordsworth, 1970
c. Lazy evaluation iii. Haskel, 1990
d. Type classes iv. Mecarthy, 1960 
Codes :
  a b c d
 (1) iv i iii ii
 (2) i iv ii iii
 (3) iii ii iv i
 (4) ii i iv iii 

20. Aliasing in the context of programming languages refers to :
 (1) Multiple variables having the same location 
 (2) Multiple variables having the same identifier 
 (3) Multiple variables having the same value 
 (4) Multiple use of same variable 

21. Assume that the program ‘P’ is implementing parameter passing with ‘call by reference’. What will be printed by following print statements in P ?  Program P( )  {   x = 10;   y = 3;   funb (y, x, x)   print x;   print y;  }   funb (x, y, z)   {      y = y + 4;      z = x + y + z;   }  (1) 10, 7 (2) 31, 3  (3) 10, 3 (4) 31, 7 
22. The regular grammar for the language L = {anbm | n + m is even} is given by   (1) S → S1 | S2   S1 → a S1 | A1   A1 → b A1 | λ   S2 → aaS2 | A2   A2 → b A2 | λ  (2) S → S1 | S2   S1 → a S1 | a A1   S2 → aa S2 | A2   A1 → bA1 | λ   A2 → bA2 | λ  (3) S → S1 | S2   S1 → aaa S1 | aA1   S2 → aaS2 | A2   A1 → bA1 | λ   A2 → bA2 | λ  (4) S → S1 | S2   S1 → aa S1 | A1   S2 → aaS2 | aA2   A1 → bbA1 | λ   A2 → bbA2 | b

23. Let Σ = {a, b} and language L = {aa, bb}. Then, the complement of L is 
 (1) {λ, a, b, ab, ba} ∪ {w∈{a, b}* | |w| > 3}
 (2) {a, b, ab, ba} ∪ {w∈{a, b}* | |w| > 3}
 (3) {w  ∈ { a, b}* | |w| > 3} ∪ {a, b, ab, ba}
 (4) {λ, a, b, ab, ba} ∪ {w ∈ {a, b}* | |w| > 3} 

24. Consider the following identities for regular expressions : 
 (a) (r + s)* = (s + r)*
 (b) (r*)* = r*
 (c) (r* s*)* = (r + s)*
 Which of the above identities are true ?
 (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
 (3) (c) and (a) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) 

25. Suppose transmission rate of a channel is 32 kbps. If there are ‘8’ routes from source to destination and each packet p contains 8000 bits. Total end to end delay in sending packet P is _____.
 (1) 2 sec (2) 3 sec
 (3) 4 sec (4) 1 sec 

26. Consider the following statements :
 A. High speed Ethernet works on optic fiber.
 B. A point to point protocol over Ethernet is a network protocol for encapsulating PPP frames inside Ethernet frames.
 C. High speed Ethernet does not work on optic fiber.
 D. A point to point protocol over Ethernet is a network protocol for encapsulating Ethernet frames inside PPP frames.
 Which of the following is correct ?
 (1) A and B are true; C and D are false.
 (2) A and B are false; C and D are true.
 (3) A, B, C and D are true.
 (4) A, B, C and D are false.

27. In CRC checksum method, assume that given frame for transmission is 1101011011 and the generator polynomial is G(x) = x4 + x + 1. 
 After implementing CRC encoder, the encoded word sent from sender side is _____.
 (1) 11010110111110 
 (2) 11101101011011
 (3) 110101111100111 
 (4) 110101111001111 

28. A slotted ALOHA network transmits 200 bits frames using a shared channel with 200 kbps bandwidth. If the system (all stations put together) produces 1000 frames per second, then the throughput of the system is _______.
 (1) 0.268 (2) 0.468
 (3) 0.368 (4) 0.568 

29. An analog signal has a bit rate of 8000 bps and a baud rate of 1000. 
 Then analog signal has _____ signal elements and carry _____ data elements in each signal.
 (1) 256, 8 bits 
 (2) 128, 4 bits
 (3) 256, 4 bits 
 (4) 128, 8 bits 

30. The plain text message BAHI encrypted with RSA algorithm using e = 3, d = 7 and n = 33 and the characters of the message are encoded using the values 00 to 25 for letters A to Z. Suppose character by character encryption was implemented. Then, the Cipher Text message is _____.
 (1) ABHI 
 (2) HAQC
 (3) IHBA 
 (4) BHQC

31. Consider the problem of a chain <A1, A2, A3, A4> of four matrices. Suppose that the dimensions of the matrices A1, A2, A3 and A4 are 30 × 35, 35 × 15, 15 × 5 and 5 × 10 respectively. The minimum number of scalar multiplications needed to compute the product A1A2A3A4 is ____.
 (1) 14875 (2) 21000
 (3) 9375 (4) 11875 

32. Consider a hash table of size m = 10000, and the hash function h(K) = floor                
(m(KA mod 1)) for A = ( 5 – 1)/2. The key 123456 is mapped to location ______.
 (1) 46 (2) 41
 (3) 43 (4) 48 

33. Consider a weighted complete graph G on the vertex set {ν1, ν2, …. νn} such that the weight of the edge (νi, νj) is 4 | i – j|. The weight of minimum cost spanning tree of G is :
 (1) 4n2 (2) n
 (3) 4n – 4  (4) 2n – 2  

34. A priority queue is implemented as a max-heap. Initially, it has five elements. The level- order traversal of the heap is as follows :
 20, 18, 15, 13, 12
 Two new elements ‘10’ and ‘17’ are inserted in the heap in that order. The level-order traversal of the heap after the insertion of the element is :
 (1) 20, 18, 17, 15, 13, 12, 10 
 (2) 20, 18, 17, 12, 13, 10, 15
 (3) 20, 18, 17, 10, 12, 13, 15 
 (4) 20, 18, 17, 13, 12, 10, 15 

35. If there are n integers to sort, each integer has d digits, and each digit is in the set                {1, 2, …, k}, radix sort can sort the numbers in :
 (1) O (k (n + d)) (2) O (d (n + k))
 (3) O ((n + k) l g d) (4) O ((n + d) l g k) 

36. Match the following :
a. Prim’s algorithm i. O(V2E)
b. Bellman-Ford algorithm  ii. O(VE lgV)
c. Floyd-Warshall algorithm  iii. O(E lgV)
d. Johnson’s algorithm iv. O(V3)
 Where V is the set of nodes and E is the set of edges in the graph. 
Codes :
  a b c d
 (1) i iii iv ii
 (2) i iii ii iv
 (3) iii i iv ii
 (4) iii i ii iv 

37. Constructors have _____ return type.
 (1) void (2) char
 (3) int (4) no 

38. Method over-riding can be prevented by using final as a modifier at ______.
 (1) the start of the class.
 (2) the start of method declaration.
 (3) the start of derived class.
 (4) the start of the method declaration in the derived class. 

39. Which of the following is a correct statement ?
 (1) Composition is a strong type of association between two classes with full ownership.
 (2) Composition is a strong type of association between two classes with partial ownership. 
 (3) Composition is a weak type of association between two classes with partial ownership.
 (4) Composition is a weak type of association between two classes with strong ownership. 

40. Which of the following is not a correct statement ?
 (1) Every class containing abstract method must be declared abstract.
 (2) Abstract class can directly be initiated with ‘new’ operator.
 (3) Abstract class can be initiated.
 (4) Abstract class does not contain any definition of implementation.  

41. Which of the following tag in HTML is used to surround information, such as signature of the person who created the page ?
 (1) <body> </body> (2) <address> </address>
 (3) <strong> </strong> (4) <em> </em> 

42. Java uses threads to enable the entire environment to be ______.
 (1) Symmetric (2) Asymmetric
 (3) Synchronous (4) Asynchronous  

43. An Operating System (OS) crashes on the average once in 30 days, that is, the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) = 30 days. When this happens, it takes 10 minutes to recover the OS, that is, the Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 10 minutes. The availability of the OS with these reliability figures is approximately :
 (1) 96.97% (2) 97.97%
 (3) 99.009% (4) 99.97%

44. Match each software lifecycle model in List – I to its description in List – II :
 List – I              List – II
I. Code-and-Fix         a. Assess risks at each step; do most critical action first.
II. Evolutionary prototyping      b. Build an initial small requirement specifications, code it, then “evolve” the specifications and code as needed.
III. Spiral             c. Build initial requirement specification for several releases, then design-and-code in sequence
IV. Staged Delivery         d. Standard phases (requirements, design, code, test) in order
V. Waterfall         e. Write some code, debug it, repeat                        (i.e. ad-hoc) 
Codes :
  I II III IV V
 (1) e b a c d
 (2) e c a b d
 (3) d a b c e
 (4) c e a b d 

45. Match each software term in List – I to its description in List – II :
 List – I  List – II
I. Wizards a. Forms that provide structure for a document
II. Templates b. A series of commands grouped into a single command
III. Macro c. A single program that incorporates most commonly used tools
IV. Integrated Software d. Step-by-step guides in application software 
V. Software Suite e. Bundled group of software programs  
Codes :
  I II III IV V
 (1) d a b c e
 (2) b a d c e
 (3) d e b a c
 (4) e c b a d

46. The ISO quality assurance standard that applies to software Engineering is 
 (1) ISO 9000 : 2004 (2) ISO 9001 : 2000
 (3) ISO 9002 : 2001 (4) ISO 9003 : 2004 

47. Which of the following are external qualities of a software product ?
 (1) Maintainability, reusability, portability, efficiency, correctness.
 (2) Correctness, reliability, robustness, efficiency, usability.
 (3) Portability, interoperability, maintainability, reusability.
 (4) Robustness, efficiency, reliability, maintainability, reusability. 

48. Which of the following is/are CORRECT statement(s) about version and release ?
 I. A version is an instance of a system, which is functionally identical but non- functionally distinct from other instances of a system.
 II. A version is an instance of a system, which is functionally distinct in some way from other system instances.
 III. A release is an instance of a system, which is distributed to users outside of the development team.
 IV. A release is an instance of a system, which is functionally identical but non- functionally distinct from other instances of a system. 
 (1) I and III (2) II and IV
 (3) I and IV (4) II and III 

49. The Unix Operating System Kernel maintains two key data structures related to processes, the process table and the user structure. Now, consider the following two statements :
 I. The process table is resident all the time and contain information needed for all processes, even those that are not currently in memory.
 II. The user structure is swapped or paged out when its associated process is not in memory, in order not to waste memory on information that is not needed.
 Which of the following options is correct with reference to above statements ?
 (1) Only (I) is correct. (2) Only (II) is correct.
 (3) Both (I) and (II) are correct. (4) Both (I) and (II) are wrong. 

50. Consider a system which have ‘n’ number of processes and ‘m’ number of resource types.
The time complexity of the safety algorithm, which checks whether a system is in safe
state or not, is of the order of :
 (1) O(mn) (2) O(m2n2)
 (3) O(m2n) (4) O(mn2) 

51. An operating system supports a paged virtual memory, using a central processor with a
cycle time of one microsecond. It costs an additional one microsecond to access a page
other than the current one. Pages have 1000 words, and the paging device is a drum that
rotates at 3000 revolutions per minute and transfers one million words per second.
Further, one percent of all instructions executed accessed a page other than the current
page. The instruction that accessed another page, 80% accessed a page already in memory
and when a new page was required, the replaced page was modified 50% of the time.
What is the effective access time on this system, assuming that the system is running only
one process and the processor is idle during drum transfers ?
 (1) 30 microseconds  
 (2) 34 microseconds 
 (3) 60 microseconds  
 (4) 68 microseconds  

52. Consider the following page reference string :
 1, 2, 3, 4, 2, 1, 5, 6, 2, 1, 2, 3, 7, 6, 3, 2, 1, 2, 3, 6
 Which of the following options, gives the correct number of page faults related to LRU,
FIFO, and optimal page replacement algorithms respectively, assuming 05 page frames
and all frames are initially empty ?
 (1) 10, 14, 8 (2) 8, 10, 7
 (3) 7, 10, 8 (4) 7, 10, 7 

53. Consider a file currently consisting of 50 blocks. Assume that the file control block and the index block is already in memory. If a block is added at the end (and the block information to be added is stored in memory), then how many disk I/O operations are required for indexed (single-level) allocation strategy ?
 (1) 1 (2) 101
 (3) 27 (4) 0 

54. An experimental file server is up 75% of the time and down for 25% of the time due to bugs. How many times does this file server have to be replicated to give an availability of at least 99% ?
 (1) 2 (2) 4
 (3) 8 (4) 16 

55. Given the following two languages :  L1 = {uwwRν | u, v, w ∈ {a, b}+}  L2 = {uwwRν | u, ν, w ∈ {a, b}+, |u| > |ν|}
 Which of the following is correct ?   (1) L1 is regular language and L2 is not regular language.  (2) L1 is not regular language and L2 is regular language.  (3) Both L1 and L2 are regular languages.  (4) Both L1 and L2 are not regular languages.  

56. Given a Turing Machine   M = ({q0, q1}, {0, 1}, {0, 1, B}, δ, B, {q1})
 Where δ is a transition function defined as  δ(q0, 0) = (q0, 0, R)
 δ(q0, B) = (q1, B, R)
 The language L(M) accepted by Turing machine is given as :
 (1) 0* 1* (2) 00*
 (3) 10* (4) 1*0*

57. Let G = (V, T, S, P) be a context-free grammar such that every one of its productions is of the form A → ν, with |ν| = k > 1. The derivation tree for any string W ∈ L (G) has a height such that 
 (1) h < (|W| – 1) k – 1 
(2) logk |W| < h
 (3) logk|W| < h < (|W| – 1) k – 1 
(4) logk|W| < h < (|W| – 1) k – 1  

58. Which of the following is not used in standard JPEG image compression ?
 (1) Huffman coding (2) Runlength encoding
 (3) Zig-zag scan (4) K-L Transform  

59. Which of the following is a source coding technique ?
 (1) Huffman coding (2) Arithmetic coding 
 (3) Run-length coding  (4) DPCM 

60. If the histogram of an image is clustered towards origin on X-axis of a histogram plot then it indicates that the image is ______.
 (1) Dark (2) Good contrast
 (3) Bright (4) Very low contrast  

61. Consider the following linear programming problem :
 Max. z = 0.50 x2 – 0.10x1
 Subject to the constraints
  2x1 + 5x2 < 80
  x1 + x2 < 20
 and x1, x2 > 0
 The total maximum profit (z) for the above problem is :
 (1) 6 (2) 8
 (3) 10 (4) 12

62. Consider the following statements :
 (a) If primal (dual) problem has a finite optimal solution, then its dual (primal) problem has a finite optimal solution.
 (b) If primal (dual) problem has an unbounded optimum solution, then its dual (primal) has no feasible solution at all.
 (c) Both primal and dual problems may be infeasible.
 Which of the following is correct ?
 (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
 (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) 

63. Consider the following statements :
 (a) Assignment problem can be used to minimize the cost.
 (b) Assignment problem is a special case of transportation problem.
 (c) Assignment problem requires that only one activity be assigned to each resource.
 Which of the following options is correct ?
 (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a) and (c) only
 (3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) 

64. What are the following sequence of steps taken in designing a fuzzy logic machine ?
 (1) Fuzzification → Rule evaluation → Defuzzification 
 (2) Fuzzification → Defuzzification → Rule evaluation 
 (3) Rule evaluation → Fuzzification → Defuzzification
 (4) Rule evaluation → Defuzzification → Fuzzification 

65. Which of the following 2 input Boolean logic functions is linearly inseparable ?
 (a) AND (b) OR
 (c) NOR (d) XOR
 (e) NOT XOR
 (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
 (3) (c), (d) and (e) (4) (d) and (e)

66. Let R and S be two fuzzy relations defined as                   y1       y2
  R =
x 1
x 2
  
  0.7 0.5 0.8 0.4  
                                 z1       z2       z3
 and S = y1 y2
  
  0.9 0.6 0.2 0.1 0.7 0.5 
 Then, the resulting relation, T, which relates elements of universe of X to elements of
universe of Z using max-product composition is given by
                                 z1            z2         z3
 (1) T  =
x 1
x 2
  
  0.68 0.89 0.39 0.76 0.72 0.32
 
  
                                 z1            z2         z3
 (2) T  =
x 1
x 2
  
  0.68 0.89 0.39 0.72 0.76 0.32
  
                                 z1            z2         z3
 (3) T  =
x 1
x 2
  
  0.63 0.42 0.25 0.72 0.48 0.20
  
                                 z1            z2         z3
 (4) T  =
x 1
x 2
  
  0.05 0.35 0.14 0.04 0.28 0.16
  
67. Consider the following operations to be performed in Unix :
 “The pipe sorts all files in the current directory modified in the month of “June” by order
of size and prints them to the terminal screen. The sort option skips ten fields then sorts
the lines in numeric order.”
 Which of the following Unix command will perform above set of operations ?
 (1) ls – l | grep “June” | sort + 10n
 (2) ls – l | grep “June” | sort + 10r
 (3) ls – l | grep – v “June” | sort + 10n
 (4) ls – l | grep – n “June” | sort + 10x 

68. Which of the following statements is incorrect for a Windows Multiple Document
Interface (MDI) ?
 (1) Each document in an MDI application is displayed in a separate child window
within the client area of the application’s main window.
 (2) An MDI application has three kinds of windows namely a frame window, an MDI
client window and number of child windows.
 (3) An MDI application can support more than one kind of document.
 (4) An MDI application displays output in the client area of the frame window. 

69. Which of the following statement(s) is/are True regarding ‘nice’ command of UNIX ?
 I. It is used to set or change the priority of a process.
 II. A process’s nice value can be set at the time of creation.
 III. ‘nice’ takes a command line as an argument.
 (1) I, II only (2) II, III only
 (3) I, II, III (4) I, III only 

70. Let ν(x) mean x is a vegetarian, m(y) for y is meat, and e(x, y) for x eats y. Based on these, consider the following sentences :
 I. ∀x ν(x ) ⇔ (∀y e(x, y) ⇒ ¬m(y))  II. ∀x ν(x ) ⇔ (¬(∃y m(y) ∧e(x, y)))  III. ∀x (∃y m(y) ∧e(x, y)) ⇔ ¬ν(x)  One can determine that   (1) Only I and II are equivalent sentences   (2) Only II and III are equivalent sentences.  (3) Only I and III are equivalent sentence .  (4) I, II, and III are equivalent sentences. 

71. Match each Artificial Intelligence term in List-I that best describes a given situation in List – II :  List – I  List – II I. Semantic Network a. Knowledge about what to do as opposed to how to do it. II. Frame b. A premise of a rule that is not concluded by any rule. III. Declarative knowledge  c. A method of knowledge representation that uses a graph. IV. Primitive d. A data structure representing stereotypical knowledge.  Codes :   I II III IV    (1) d a b c  (2) d c a b  (3) d c b a  (4) c d a b 

72. In Artificial Intelligence , a semantic network  (1) is a graph-based method of knowledge representation where nodes represent concepts and arcs represent relations between concepts.   (2) is a graph-based method of knowledge representation where nodes represent relations between concepts and arcs represent concepts.  (3) represents an entity as a set of slots and associated rules.  (4) is a subset of first-order logic. 

73. Criticism free idea generation is a factor of _____.
 (1) Decision Support System
 (2) Group Decision Support System
 (3) Enterprise Resource Support System
 (4) Artificial Intelligence  

74. Consider the following logical inferences : 
 I1 : If it is Sunday then school will not open.
  The school was open.
  Inference : It was not Sunday.
 I2 : If it is Sunday then school will not open.
  It was not Sunday.
  Inference : The school was open. 
  Which of the following is correct ?
 (1) Both I1 and I2 are correct inferences.
 (2) I1 is correct but I2 is not a correct inference.
 (3) I1 is not correct but I2 is a correct inference.
 (4) Both I1 and I2 are not correct inferences.  

75. Which formal system provides the semantic foundation for Prolog ?
 (1) Predicate calculus 
 (2) Lambda calculus
 (3) Hoare logic 
 (4) Propositional logic 
_______________

रामायण में धन के बारे में कई महत्वपूर्ण सबक

 रामायण में धन के बारे में कई महत्वपूर्ण सबक दिए गए हैं: 1. *धर्म को धन से ऊपर रखें*: धन से ज्यादा महत्वपूर्ण धर्म और कर्तव्य है। 2. *संतुष्...